Question Set 4
The ARRT Standard of Ethics is comprised
The Code of Ethics and the Rules of Ethics.
T/F: The ARRT does not review, evaluate, or endorse publications.
The ARRT Standard of ethics is ____________.
T/F: Interpretation and diagnosis are outside the sc
ope of practice for the
The ARRT Code of Ethics offers __________ for ethical conduct.
The ARRT Rules of Ethics are __________ policies that are _________, if
enforceable, punishable, if violated
Why were the ARRT Rules of Ethics created?
To safeguard the patients comfort and safety
Violating the ARRT Rules of Ethics is subject to ___________.
What are the three goals of the Patients Bill of Rights and Responsibilities?
To strengthen consumer confidence that the health care system is
fair and responsive to consumer needs
To reaffirm the importance of a strong relationship between
patients and their health care providers
To reaffirm the critical role consumers play in sa
What are the 7 sets of patient rights?
The right to Information
The right to Choose
Access to Emergency Services
Being a Full Partner in Health Care Decisions
Care Without Discrimination
The Right to Privacy
The Right to
Speedy Complaint Resolution
What is the one responsibility of the patient?
Patients must take greater responsibility for maintaining good health.
What do we call the State laws that have been developed to govern
communication between health c
are providers and patients?
Informed Consent Laws
What determines weather consent may be given verbally or if it must be
The individual State Laws
T/F: In some states, for procedures that entail greater risks, informed
only be obtained by a physician.
When is the only time that a patient’s consent may be presumed rather than
In an emergency situation.
What does PHI stand for in regards to HIPAA.
Protected Health Information
PHI may legally be used for activities such as teaching, business and
management operations, disclosures required by law, and public health and
T/F: As a Technologist you must be a patient advocate fir
st and an assistant
Malpractice is the failure to do something that a reasonable person, guided
by those considerations which ordinarily regulate human affairs, would
Negligence is a breach or failure to fulfill the expected standard of care.
What must be demonstrated in a lawsuit in order to prove negligence?
Breach of Duty
Cause of Injury
T/F: As a Technologist, you are responsible f
or your own negligent acts,
regardless if another medical professional advises you to act in the negligent
List 4 key screening issues.
The reason for the exam
The potential for pregnancy
The patient’s medical history
The values of
T/F: If there is a discrepancy between the study ordered on the paperwork
one described by the patient, further clarification must be sought.
By asking extensive questions about the patient’s medical history there are
actually two pieces of information we are trying to learn. What are they?
Does the patient have any conditions or tendencies to be intolerant
to a contrast agent?
Does the patient have any history of prior surgeries or treatments
we would expect to cau
se the CT images of this patient to differ
from normal anatomy?
Why might it be important to ask the patient if they have had had radiation
Because scarring caused by radiation therapy mimics lung disease.
What questions should be as
ked during screening for contrast agents?
Previous reaction to contrast?
Allergies to iodine or barium?
Conditions such as hypertension, heart disease, asthma, sickle cell
anemia, renal impairment or diabetes?
What are the two types of lab results im
portant to CT?
Tests to determine renal function
Tests to determine the bloods ability to coagulate
What are the two tests that determine renal function?
BUN and Creatinine
What does BUN provide?
It provides information about the kidney’s
ability to remove impurities
from the blood.
What does an elevated BUN indicate the possibility of?
What is the normal/acceptable range for BUN values?
5 to 25 mg/dl
Why can an elevated
level be a contraindi
Creatinine is a waste product of muscle contraction that is normally
filtered out of the body by the kidneys. Elevated creatinine levels may
indicate impairment of the function of the kidneys.
What is the normal range
.6 to 1.7 mg/dl
What are the three tests that determine the bloods ability to coagulate?
Prothrombin Time (PT)
Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT)
T/F: Platelets are small cell fragments that do not contain a n
What two tests asses the series of chemical interactions required to form a
PT and PTT
What are the typically accepted values for PT, PTT and Platelet count?
10 to 14 seconds
20 to 40 seconds
Platelet Count =
150,000/mm³ to 400,000/mm³
What are the two ways that x
rays which penetrate the tissues can cause
to the body?
By breaking electron bonds and forming ion pairs (Indirect Effect)
By directly disrupting the DNA
bonds within the nuclei of cells in
the patient’s body (Direct Effect)(less likely)
As a result of radiation exposure during pregnancy, there is an increased
incidence of what?
Neonatal Deaths due to
When dealing with strictly x
rays, what is the most common unit for
absorbed radiation dosage?
How much radiation is in 1 rad?
1 rad = 0.01 joules of energy per kilogram of matter (the patients weight)
Radiation strictly from x
rays is measured in _____ or ______. Sv and rem
used to measure __________________ radiation.
rad or Gy (Gray), any kind of
rem and Sievert are a measurement of what?
“Effective Dose” or “Dose Equivalent”
at is the average annual radiation dose equivalent from radon?
The _________ the distance traveled through the tissue and the ________ the
tissue the x
ray photons penetrate, the more the dose is decreased along the
What are the typical skin radiation doses for CT scans of the head, body and
What is the approximate Skin Dose and Center Dose for a 30 s
lice CT study?
What is the approximate Skin Dose and Center Dose for 1 radiography film?
What is the approximate Skin Dose and Center Dose for 5 radiography
What do we call radiation that extends outside of the intended slice?
How is the actual dose from multiple adjacent slices measured?
By an important indicator of radiation do
se called the CT dose index, or
The ___________ is an indicator of radiation dose which includes the
located within the intended slice thickness as well as that from the
The CT Dose Index or CTDI
T/F: The CTDI d
oes not factor in the variation in dose due to gaps or
The ________ assumes that consecutive slices are contiguous.
In order to account for gaps or overlaps between adjacent slices there is
ndicator of dose called the _____________________________.
Multiple Slice Average
The MSAD is _________ than the CTDI when the slices or loops of the helix
overlap and the MSAD is ___________ than the DTDI when there are gaps
T/F: The more slices collected by the MDCT scanner in a single rotation, the
the penumbra effect adds to the total patient dose.
There is no federally imposed limit to radiation exposure.
T/F: The further
the CT Tube is situated from the patient, the lower the
How does varying the collimation affect the dose for that slice?
Collimation determines the radiation penumbra and it also affects scatter
ollecting multiple slices at the same time on a MDCT scanner delivers
more dose to the patient than does conventional or serial scanning.
Why was dose
optimized software developed?
As a response to the realization that the newer scanners (
otherwise increase the dose to the patient.
What does the dose
optimized software do?
It automatically adjusts the mA
What are the four hardware factors affecting dose?
ray tube to patient distance
row detector design along with dose minimizing software
Manufacturers claim that their dose
optimizing software which
varies the mA allows for dose reductions ranging from ______
% to ______%.
15% to 55%.
some other features for minimizing the radiation dose to the
found on new CT scanners?
“Noise Reduction Algorithms
mprovements in the efficiency of the detectors
There is a __________ relationship between mAs and dose.
kVp is usually only decreased to minimize dose in small patients.
Slice thickness really only affects the dose to the patient on MDCT scanners.
False: Slice thickness really only affect the dose to the patient on single
row detector s
T/F: For MDCT scanners, the slice thickness always affects the dose.
False: For MDCT scanners, the slice thickness does not affect the dose.
What are some other ways to minimize dose?
Reduce repeat scans
Reformat rather than re
Reduce multiple scans
During the CT scan, the patient should be monitored both __________ and
visually and verbally
If a patient is sedated, what type of monitoring device is recommended?
A Pulse Oximeter
How do you
identify Cardiac Arrest?
Damp bluish or grayish skin tone
Incontinence or defecation
What are some signs of a Seizure?
Uncontrollable muscular contractions
Blank facial expression
Loss of mot
What should you do if your patient is having a seizure?
All restraints and objects that could cause harm should be removed and the
patient should be eased into a resting position (e.g., on the patient ta
chair, or the floor).
What results from a lack of blood flow to the brain?
What are some signs of a stroke?
Inability to communicate
bilateral or unilateral numbness or paralysis
What should be done when a patient has a stroke?
Monitor vital signs frequently
Prepare patient for airway ventilation, suction, intravenous fluids
and possible CPR
What results from insufficient blood flow to the tissues and vital organs?
What can cause shock?
Loss of blood volume
Sudden massive vasodilation
What type of shock occurs from IV contrast injection?
Anaphylactic shock (sudden massive vasodilation)
What are some signs of shock?
Altered levels of consciousn
Cool bluish or grayish skin tone
What are the key vital signs and their normal values?
97˚ F to 99˚ F
96.5˚ F to 98.5˚ F
97.5˚ F to 99.5˚ F
70 to 100 BPM
45 to 60 BPM
95 to 110 BPM
100 to 180 BPM
How should you treat a patient experiencing shock?
They should be kept warm with legs elevated (provided there are no
bleeding wounds i
n the upper body or head). If it is anaphylactic shock a
medication such as epinephrine can be administered.
How accurately should temperatures be recorded?
To the nearest tenth of a degree
What do we call the rules that all health care w
orkers must follow in order to
minimize the spread of infection?
Standard or Universal Precautions
When and why was the necessity for universal precautions first identified?
In the mid 1980s as a result of the HIV epidemic
Give three exam
ples of bloodborne pathogens.
In 1996 the definition and recommendations for Universal Precautions was
revised and given a new name. What was that name?
What body substances does st
andard precautions apply to?
Excretions (except sweat)
What are some of the more common standard precaution procedures?
Mask, Eye Protection, Face Shield
What form of infection transmission occurs by dissemination of either
droplet nuclei (small
particle residue [5 um or smaller in size] of
evaporated droplets that
ay remain suspended in the
or long periods of
time) or dust particles containing the
What do we call the precautions associated with airborne infection
List the Airborne Precautions.
egative air pressure in room (6 to 12 air changes per hour)
Wear N95 respirator into room
Place mask on patient if transport is necessary
What type of infection transmission involves contact of the conjunctivae or
mucous membranes of the nose or
mouth of a susceptible person with
droplets (larger than 5 um in size) containing microorganisms
generated from an infected
What do we call the precautions used when dealing with droplet infection
List the Droplet Precautions.
Maintain at least 3 feet between infected patients and other patients
The door may remain open
Wear a mask when working within 3 feet of the patient
Mask patient during transport if possible
ow far can droplets travel?
Up to 3 feet
Which type of precautions are designed to reduce the risk of transmission of
epidemiologically important microorganisms by direct contact?
ist the Contact Precautions.
Gloves and Handwashing
Wear a Gown
Wear Gloves and gown during transport