WRC 2005Networking Concepts

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Oct 27, 2013 (3 years and 7 months ago)

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#111 Networking Concepts


2005 FBLA WRC




1

WRC 2005

Networking Concepts


1.

Which network operating system was developed from the VMS platform?

a.

NetWare

b.

UNIX

c.

Windows 95

d.

Windows NT


2.

Which operating system was originally developed by Bell Labs and has
multitasking, multiuser, and built in networking capa
bilities?

a.

UNIX

b.


Windows 95

c.

Windows NT

d.

NetWare


3.

Which of the following are network operating systems and not simply operating
systems that will communicate on a network?

a.

Novell NetWare

b.

Microsoft Windows 3.1

c.

Microsoft Windows 9X

d.

none of the above


4.

What do ne
tworks use to communicate with each other that is sometimes known
as a language that networked computers use?

a.

NIC

b.

segment

c.

protocol

d.

cable


5.

Which network protocol was developed by Novell for use in its network operating
system?

a.

IPX

b.

TCP/IP

c.

NetBEUI

d.

DLC


6.

Which
protocol is used on the Internet to give each computer a unique address?

a.

IPX

b.

TCP/IP

c.

NetBEUI

d.

DLC





#111 Networking Concepts


2005 FBLA WRC




2

7.

Which of the following are methods of ensuring fault tolerance with data on a
network?

a.

disk mirroring

b.

disk striping


8.

When multiple disk controllers are use
d in a drive mirroring scenario, it is know
as which of the following?

a.

disk multiplexing

b.

disk duplobuilding

c.

bidirectional disking

d.

disk duplexing


9.

Which of the following is NOT a layer in the OSI model?

a.

physical

b.

transport

c.

network

d.

data transmission


10.

Which of

the following is NOT a common type of medium used in networking?

a.

coaxial cable

b.

twisted
-
pair cable

c.

fiber optic cable

d.

RJ
-
45


11.

What is the distance limitation on 10Base2, or Thinnet?

a.

100 meters

b.

185 meters

c.

250 meters

d.

500 meters


12.

When data is able to travel in
both directions on a cable, it is known as which of
the following?

a.

fault tolerance

b.

half duplex

c.

biduplex

d.

full duplex


13.

In what type of network is there no dedicated server and each mode on the
network is an equal resource for sharing and receiving informatio
n?

a.

client/server

b.

peer
-
to
-
peer

c.

Windows NT Server 4.0

d.

Novell IntraNetWare 4.x



#111 Networking Concepts


2005 FBLA WRC




3

14.

In order for differing networks to communicate with each other, we need to use
which of the following to translate between the networks?

a.

protocol

b.

medium

c.

gateway

d.

bridge


15.

Which of
the following types of hubs does NOT regenerate the signal and
therefore is NOT a repeater?

a.

active

b.

hybrid

c.

passive

d.

switching hub


16.

What network component is used to extend the distance of the signal when
transmitting over the normal specified distance?

a.

passi
ve hub

b.

NIC

c.

IRQ

d.

repeater


17.

Which of the following must be set to enable a device to directly access memory
on the system, without the CPU’s intervention?

a.

I/O address

b.

DMA

c.

IRC

d.

IRQ


18.

What does EPROM stand for?

a.

Enhanced programmable read only memory

b.

Erasable prog
rammable read out memory

c.

Enhanced permanent read only memory

d.

Erasable programmable read only memory


19.

If you are configuring a NIC in DOS, which of the following is the most likely
extension for the file that determines the settings for the interface card?

a.

.INF

b.

.CON

c.

.C.G.

d.

.DOS






#111 Networking Concepts


2005 FBLA WRC




4

20.

If you have a workstation that has no diskette drive or hard drive and you want to
put the workstation on your network, what do you have to do?

a.

simply add any network card

b.

add a network card that has a mini hard disk on it

c.

add a n
etwork card that has an external connector for a diskette drive

d.

add a network card that has a remote boot PROM chip


21.

What is an AUI connector?

a.

a 9
-
pin DB male connector

b.

a 15
-
pin D female connector

c.

a 25
-
pin D female connector

d.

same as an RJ
-
45 connector


22.

Wha
t type of network component enables each device to have the full bandwidth
of the medium when transmitting?

a.

hub

b.

repeater

c.

switching hub

d.

transceiver


23.

What does MAU stand for?

a.

multisensing action unit

b.

multistation access unit

c.

myltisplit addtransmission unit

d.

m
ultistation action unit


24.

What type of hub enables more than one type of cable or media to connect to it?

a.

passive

b.

active

c.

hybrid

d.

MAU


25.

What will happen if we have a routing table with the same route to the same
destination network?

a.

you cannot have the same ro
ute twice

b.

you cannot have the same destination listed twice

c.

the route with the closest router will be used

d.

the route with the fewest number of hops will be used


26.

Which of the following is NOT true regarding dynamic routers?

a.

They can choose the most efficie
nt path to the destination network.

b.

They can communicate and share information with neighboring routers.

c.

They cannot be configured with static routes.

d.

They can communicate with other routers using RIP and OSPF.



#111 Networking Concepts


2005 FBLA WRC




5

27.

What will happen if the default gateway is

not specified on your computer and
you try to reach another network?

a.

The packet will ask every router if it knows the path to reach the
destination.

b.

The packet will broadcast for the IP address of the nearest router.

c.

The packet will be forwarded to the DN
S server.

d.

The packet will not be sent.


28.

Which of the following is NOT true of the Transport layer of the OSI model?

a.

It is responsible for error control.

b.

It is responsible for encrypting session information.

c.

It interacts with the Network layer.

d.

It is respon
sible for segment sequencing.


29.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of connection
-
oriented
communication?

a.

datagrams

b.

handshaking

c.

virtual circuits

d.

sessions


30.

Why is connection
-
oriented data delivery faster?

a.

Because a session between the two computer
s is maintained for the entire
duration of the transfer of data.

b.

Because you can quickly re
-
send data if it becomes lost or corrupt.

c.

Because the packets already know where they are going and don’t have to
find alternate routes.

d.

Connection
-
oriented data tra
nsfer is NOT quicker than connectionless
-

oriented data transfer.


31.

Which of the following are the best examples of a mailslot?

a.

a two
-
way telephone conversation

b.

a bulletin board

c.

an answering machine

d.

b and c are correct


32.

The LMHOSTS file is a static file t
o resolve what types of names?

a.

UNIX

b.

NetBEUI

c.

HOSTS

d.

NetBIOS





#111 Networking Concepts


2005 FBLA WRC




6

33.

Which utility can be used to display and modify the table that maintains the
TCP/IP address to MAC address translation?

a.

NBTSTAT

b.

Telnet

c.

ARP

d.

SNMP


34.

Which protocols do NOT have statistics available
with the Netstat utility?

a.

TCP

b.

ICMP

c.

ARP

d.

IP


35.

Which utility enables you to execute console commands remotely at a virtual
terminal?

a.

FTP

b.

Ping

c.

Telnet

d.

NBTSTAT


36.

Which protocol uses a 16
-
character name, with the last digit reserved as a
resource identifier?

a.

NetBT

b.

NetBEUI

c.

NBTSTAT

d.

NetBIOS


37.

Which utility can be used to troubleshoot NetBIOS over TCP/IP connectivity
issues?

a.

NetBT

b.

NetBEUI

c.

NBTSTAT

d.

NetBIOS


38.

Which NBTSTAT switch enables you to display the computer’s local NetBT
name cache?

a.


R

b.


c

c.


a

d.


A






#111 Networking Concepts


2005 FBLA WRC




7

39.

In what ways can
a computer with a NetBIOS name register its services on the
network?

a.

broadcast

b.

HOSTS file

c.

WINS server

d.

both a and c


40.

Which utility is used to determine the path that data takes during transport to a
remote host?

a.

NBTSTAT

b.

ARP

c.

FTP

d.

Tracert


41.

Which utility is use
d to display TCP/IP specific protocol and interface statistics?

a.

NBTSTAT

b.

ARP

c.

Netstat

d.

none of the above


42.

Which items are NOT available for display in IPCONFIG?

a.

TCP/IP address

b.

MAC address

c.

DHCP lease information

d.

none of the above


43.

Which utility is used to faci
litate file transfers between two remote hosts?

a.

FTP

b.

Telnet

c.

Ping

d.

none of the above


44.

Which utility is used to verify network connectivity of a remote host?

a.

route

b.

ARP

c.

Ping

d.

none of the above


45.

Which utility is used to verify the DNS database on a DNS server?

a.

ro
ute

b.

ARP

c.

Ping

d.

NSLOOKUP




#111 Networking Concepts


2005 FBLA WRC




8

46.

Which network layer protocols can Serial Line Internet Protocol use during a dial
-
up session?

a.

IPX

b.

SLP

c.

TCP/IP

d.

none of the above


47.

Which components are part of Point
-
to
-
Point Protocol?

a.

network control protocol

b.

link control protocol

c.

in
ternet protocol

d.

both a and b


48.

Which forms of validation can PPP use to authenticate users against a remote
server?

a.

CHAP

b.

Domain Account

c.

PAP

d.

both a and c


49.

What was the first Integrated Services Digital Network standard to be published
by the ITU?

a.

ISDN
-
1

b.

ISDN
-
N1

c.

N1

d.

NI
-
1


50.

How many B channels are available in a typical ISDN PRI?

a.

2

b.

20

c.

23

d.

30


51.

What line protocols are available with Microsoft’s Dial Up Networking?

a.

NetWare Connect

b.

Point
-
to
-
Point Protocol

c.

Serial Line Internet Protocol

d.

all of the above


52.

What is the def
ault IRQ setting for COM2?

a.

2

b.

14

c.

4

d.

3



#111 Networking Concepts


2005 FBLA WRC




9

53.

Which modem standard defines error
-
checking standards?

a.

V.42

b.

V.34

c.

V.52

d.

V.100


54.

What two terminal service protocols can be used in terminal services
environment?

a.

RDP

b.

NetBEUI

c.

ICA

d.

both a and c


55.

Which switching technology is

used by the telephone company?

a.

packet

b.

circuit

c.

WAN

d.

hub


56.

How are the signals sent on an ATM network?

a.

digitally

b.

infra
-
red

c.

analog

d.

sonar


57.

How many streams does the SONET network transfer?

a.

1

b.

2

c.

3

d.

4 or more


58.

What can be used in a SONET network to allow user’s dat
a to remain private?

a.

multiplexer

b.

PTE

c.

LTE

d.

scrambler


59.

What is the highest OC level?

a.

32

b.

64

c.

128

d.

192





#111 Networking Concepts


2005 FBLA WRC




10

60.

How is error checking managed on a Frame Relay network?

a.

network devices

b.

user at the sending PC

c.

user at the receiving PC

d.

by the protocol used


61.

If the primary

ring fails, what is used for redundancy/

a.

the entire secondary ring

b.

a portion of the primary ring that has not failed, and a part of the
secondary ring that is equal to the primary ring that failed

c.

a portion of the primary ring that has not failed, and a p
art of the
secondary ring that is equal to the primary ring that has not failed

d.

a portion of the primary ring that failed, and a part of the secondary ring
that is equal to the primary ring that has failed


62.

How many channels make up a TI?

a.

6

b.

12

c.

24

d.

48


63.

What
portion of the Windows NT security subsystem handles both local security
policies and user authentication, and generates audit log messages?

a.

Local Security Authority (LSA)

b.

Security Accounts Manager (SAM)

c.

Security reference Monitor

d.

none of the above


64.

What
access control object determines what users and groups have permission to
this object?

a.

System Access Control List (SACL)

b.

Discretionary Access Control List (DACL)

c.

owner

d.

user


65.

Within User Manager, what menu option lists additional user rights that can be
add
ed?

a.

Policies / Audit

b.

Users / Audit

c.

Policies / User Rights

d.

Users / User Rights






#111 Networking Concepts


2005 FBLA WRC




11

66.

What is the symmetric encryption algorithm better known as?

a.

Digital Encryption Standard (DES)

b.

RSA Standard

c.

Private
-
key algorithm

d.

Public
-
key algorithm


67.

What Block Cipher Mode

encrypts each block individually during the encryption
process?

a.

Electronic Codebook (ECB)

b.

Cipher Block Chaining (CBC)

c.

Cipher Feedback Mode (CFB)

d.

none of the above


68.

What encryption standard is based upon a fixed 56
-
bit symmetric key encryption
algorithm?

a.

R
SA

b.

DES

c.

CPA

d.

DSE


69.

What technology provides a secure communications channel between an internal
network and a public network such as the Internet?

a.

encryption

b.

firewall

c.

router

d.

none of the above


70.

What type of firewall is used to provide security based upon rules

governing the
network or transport layers?

a.

packet level

b.

application level

c.

circuit level

d.

none of the above


71.

What is the technical computer term for a situation in which another system’s
electrical interference causes performance degradation of a computer?

a.

attenuation

b.

EMI

c.

cross
-
talk

d.

plenum






#111 Networking Concepts


2005 FBLA WRC




12

72.

Which type of NetBIOS name resolution is used to resolve Windows computer
names to TCP/IP addresses on a local area network?

a.

DNS

b.

DSN

c.

WINS

d.

HOST file


73.

Which of the following is NOT true concerning tape backup?

a.

It is the

most expensive type of backup

b.

It uses sequential access method

c.

You can use multiple tapes in a tape magazine

d.

They are slower than most backup mediums


74.

What does Windows NT use to distribute logon scripts to multiple servers?

a.

the distribution service

b.

the d
omain controller service

c.

the replication service

d.

the backup process


75.

Which of the following is NOT a good reason for removing an unused or outdated
driver?

a.

to conserve space

b.

to conserve memory

c.

so they don’t accidentally get loaded

d.

so they don’t get corrupt
ed


76.

Which of the following computers will send out a beacon on a token ring network
indicating a fault?

a.

the most active upstream neighbor

b.

the nearest upstream neighbor

c.

the most active upstream station

d.

the nearest active upstream neighbor


77.

Network operating

systems, such as NetWare and Windows NT/2000/XP, use
which of the following to update the operating system itself?

a.

update packs

b.

service calls

c.

serial packs

d.

service packs







#111 Networking Concepts


2005 FBLA WRC




13

78.

When software vendors want to update their software in a major way and bring
out

a new version which is sometimes free or sometimes costs money, it is called
a(n)

a.

update

b.

upgrade

c.

upload

d.

patch

.

79.

What are the two most common types of tape drives in today’s networks?

a.

DDS

b.

DAT

c.

DLT

d.

both b and c


80.

What available options are there for taking
care of viruses?

a.

move file

b.

cure file

c.

delete file

d.

all of the above


81.

If you want to scan local or mapped network drives with InoculateT, which of the
following options should you choose?

a.

network scanner

b.

local scanner

c.

real
-
time scanner

d.

disk recovery option


82.

H
ow often are virus signatures generally updated by the vendor or manufacturer?

a.

daily

b.

weekly

c.

monthly

d.

annually


83.

Which of the following is most like NOT a problem when adding another
workstation to the network segment?

a.

The workstation is not able to find a do
main controller on the network

b.

The bridge can no longer handle the amount of traffic on the network and
begins to lock up

c.

The workstation is not able to receive an IP address

d.

The workstation has an error concerning the network card on boot up







#111 Networking Concepts


2005 FBLA WRC




14

84.

What is

the difference between a Resource Kit and a Knowledge Base?

a.

The Resource Kit is free; the Knowledge Base is not.

b.

The Knowledge Base contains fixes to known problems and the Resource
Kit contains self education material

c.

Resource Kits are for advertising th
ird party products and the Knowledge
Base is just basic concepts

d.

The Knowledge Base comes with the product; the Resource Kit does not


85.

Where can you go to obtain the latest driver for a device?

a.

the CD that came with the product

b.

the Resource Kit

c.

the manufac
turer’s web site

d.

the Knowledge Base


86.

Which of the following appears to be the most important condition and should
warrant the highest priority?

a.

a user cannot log on

b.

one of the printers is jammed

c.

several users are receiving a message that their hard drives
are full

d.

the network is slower than normal accessing the Internet


87.


Which of the following appears to be the most important condition and should
warrant the highest priority?

a.

several users are receiving a message that their hard drives are full

b.

several us
ers are receiving a message that their email inbox limit has been
exceeded

c.

the network is slower than normal accessing the Internet

d.

a printer is down in the accounting department


88.


Which of the following appears to be the most important condition and shou
ld
warrant the highest priority?

a.

a few users cannot access the employee time
-
reporting database

b.

a printer is down in the accounting department

c.

several users are receiving a message that their email inbox limit has been
exceeded

d.

a user cannot access his per
sonal drive on the network


89.

The personnel department is having trouble accessing their corporate database
system for checking job postings. Why does this warrant a higher priority?

a.

because they are handling job postings

b.

because they are in the personnel d
epartment

c.

because the problem is affecting a large number of users

d.

because they are using an older system




#111 Networking Concepts


2005 FBLA WRC




15

90.

A company just announced that they have a new version of their virus checking
software available on their Web site. Why should this not be a high
est priority; or
should it be?

a.

It should be because it is virus scanning software

b.

It should be because it is a new release

c.

It shouldn’t be because patches and fixes are not a priority unless they
address issues that affect your network

d.

It shouldn’t be beca
use virus scanning is not very important compared to
other issues on the network


91.

A few computers on the engineering segment are having problems reaching the
AutoCAD design segment on the network, but they can access all other segments.
What is your initi
al diagnosis of the problem?

a.

it’s a gateway issue

b.

it’s a routing issue

c.

the computers have cable problems

d.

a hub is locked up


92.


All the users on a coaxial bus topology network have suddenly complained that
the network is not functioning and they can no longe
r access resources on the
local or remote networks. What is your initial diagnosis of the problem?

a.

it’s a routing issue

b.

it’s a default gateway issue

c.

the network is no longer terminated

d.

a hub is locked up


93.

You think you are having problems with the UNIX se
rver in another region. Two
users have already complained this morning. What would be the next logical step
in your troubleshooting methodology?

a.

check the router

b.

check the hub

c.

PING the UNIX server by name

d.

PING the UNIX server by IP address


94.

You have a wo
rkstation that you moved from one cubicle to another. Nothing on
the workstation has changed, but the computer refuses to connect to the network.
Which of the following is the likely cause?

a.

the network drop has not been activated in the wiring closet

b.

the

TCP/IP configuration is incorrect

c.

the network adapter was damaged in the move

d.

all of the above are possibilities





#111 Networking Concepts


2005 FBLA WRC




16

95.

You are experiencing problems on a coax bus network. How can you quickly
determine where the problem is occurring?

a.

Divide the network in
half, terminate it, and find which side is still not
functioning. That is the affected area. Continue this process until the
break is found.

b.

Use a network packet sniffer to determine where the packets eventually
stop responding. This will tell you which

computer is the closest to the
break.

c.

Use a fox and hound process to determine the location of the break in the
network backbone

d.

Use Network Monitor to determine what is causing the broadcast storm.
One computer’s faulty network card is the likely culpri
t and must be
found.


96.

Steve, a user on your network, just got back from a two
-
week vacation. He calls
you first thing Monday morning. Which of the following is most likely the reason
for Steve’s call?

a.

he forgot his password

b.

his account has been disabled

c.

his password has expired

d.

all of the above are possibilities


97.

You came to work on Monday morning only to notice that you are having
network problems. Your domain controller, which also functions as a database
server, appears to be having problems. How can

you further investigate the
situation?

a.

check the error log

b.

PING the server to see if it responds

c.

run diagnostics on the server

d.

restart the computer and then begin troubleshooting


98.

You feel you are having driver incompatibility problems with your network
a
dapter. What is the best resource for finding another network adapter driver?

a.

TechNet

b.

Resource Kit

c.

Vender Web site

d.

Documentation CD


99.

Which of the following will you NOT need prior to installing DNS?

a.

the DHCP address scope

b.

your domain name

c.

the hostnames of

each server

d.

the IP address of each server for which you want to provide name
resolution



#111 Networking Concepts


2005 FBLA WRC




17

100.

What is the best tool to determine where a break has occurred in a cable?

a.

a tone generator

b.

a spectrum division analyzer

c.

a time domain reflectometer

d.

a fox and hound


#111 Networking Concepts


2005 FBLA WRC




18


Answer Key


1.


D

26.

C


51.

D


76.

D

2.


A

27.

D


52.

D


77.

D

3.


A


28.

B


53.

A


78.

B

4.


C


29.

A


54.

D


79.

D

5.


A


30.

D


55.

B


80.

D

6.


B


31.

D


56.

C


81.

B

7.


D


32.

D


57.

A


82.

C

8.


D


33.

C


58.

D


8
3.

B

9.


D


34.

C


59.

D


84.

B

10.


D


35.

C


60.

D


85.

C

11.


B


36.

C


61.

C


86.

A

12.


D


37.

C


62.

C


87.

D

13.


B


38.

B


63.

A


88.

A

14.


C


39.

D


64.

B


89.

C

15.


C


40.

D


65.

C


90.

C

16.


D


41.

C


66.

C


9
1.

B

17.


B


42.

D


67.

A


92.

C

18.


D


43.

A


68.

B


93.

D

19.


C


44.

C


69.

B


94.

D

20.


D


45.

D


70.

A


95.

A

21.


B


46.

A


71.

B


96.

D

22.


C


47.

D


72.

C


97.

A

23.


B


48.

D


73.

A


98.

C

24.


C


49.

D


74.

C


99.

A

25.


D


50.

B


75.

D


100.

C