EXAMINATIION REFORMS BRANCH The examination Reforms Branch deals with various aspects of examination reforms in the Commission. Branch consists of Technical Experts who are specialized in Educational Measurement and Testing with 8 Sections/Units/Cells. The Branch is being headed by Director. He is assisted by Joint Secretary, Joint Directors and Deputy

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EXAMINATIION REFORMS BRANCH


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The examination Reforms Branch deals with various aspects of examination reforms
in the Commission. Branch consists of Technical Experts who are specialized in
Educational

Measurement and Testing with 8 Sections/Units/Cells. The Branch is being
headed by Director. He is assisted by Joint Secretary, Joint Directors and Deputy
Directors in carrying out various functions assigned to the Branch.


The Commission have introdu
ced Objective Type Tests in most of their examinations. In
order to facilitate the preparation of question papers for the Commission’s Examination, the
Branch is maintaining a Question Bank on Objective Type Questions in various disciplines
which is being

reviewed and updated every year.


Number of meetings of experts from different universities and educational institutions are
conducted every year in order to review, edit test items collected by the Item Bank in order
to bring about qualitative improvem
ent in the question papers.




Since good objective tests items can be constructed only by academic experts who have
skills in the art of writing, reviewing and editing objective tests items. State Public Service
Commissions are also invited to send suit
able representatives to take part in such
workshops to enable them to create an Examination Reforms Wing of their own in the
Public Service Commissions.


The work of test and item analysis is also done in the Branch and improvements
effected. The Branch a
lso renders assistance to State Public Service Commissions, if
needed, in the matter of Examination Reforms.




Research and Analysis Unit carries out studies on diverse aspects of the process of
examinations. Detailed statistical analysis of different

examinations is carried out on a
regular basis to monitor the quality of test items and papers. Socio
-
economic background
of the candidates called for Personality (Interview of the Civil Services Examination and
Engineering services Examination are analy
zed to study patterns in respect of the
candidates appearing and qualifying these examinations. Further, certain psychometric
indices are also compiled to monitor the Quality of test items and the effectiveness of test
administered and to affect necess
ary changes and improvements in the examination
methodology and selection process.


Research and Statistics unit undertakes Collection, compilation and analysis of data
pertaining to selections through recruitment by interview and monitoring of pending
rec
ruitment cases, preparation of the list of debarred/black listed candidates and verification of
applications of candidates applying for various examinations/selections of the Commission.
Write
-
up on Civil Services (Main) Examinations; the Engineering Servi
ces Examinations;
preparation of detailed material on Recruitment by interview for inclusion in the Annual
Reports of the Commission, Redeployment of Surplus Officers sponsored by the Central
Surplus Cell, DOP&T against Group ‘A’ and ‘B’ posts; preparat
ion of results of direct
recruitment cases for publication in the Employment News/ Rozgar Samachar.



The syllabus revision cell constituted recently has been given the responsibility
for periodic review and revision of syllabus of various examinations c
onducted by the
UPSC.


Format of Question Papers

(For preliminary examinations)



The question papers for various preliminary examinations and other Recruitment tests
conducted by UPSC contains objective type test items. Objective type examinations/tests a
im at
evaluating not only the candidate’s ability to recall memorized information but also his
understanding of the subject and other higher mental abilities. They indirectly evaluate whether the
candidate is able to analyse complex situations and find the

appropriate solution to problems,
whether he can synthesize scattered bits of information into a meaningful whole and whether the
candidate can evaluate a complex situation using the given evidence and make sound judgments.
Irrespective of the content of
the subject
-
matter of the objective test paper, it is these process skills
which form the basis of screening and selection using the objective tests.




The number of test items in a question paper varies from subject to subject and
examination to examinat
ion.



A typical multiple choice test item consists of a stem in which a question is either asked
directly or implied in the form of an incomplete statement, followed by
four

suggested answers
called options or responses. Three of these are incorrect and a
re called distractors and one is
correct, called the key. The candidate is required to select the correct or best possible answer out
of four options. The question paper generally contains following type of objective test items.



1.

Multiple Choice Item(sim
ple selection)

2.

Multiple Selection Item

3.

Matching Type Item

4.

Assertion
-
Reason type Item

5.

Sequencing type Item



The specimen questions based on above mentioned types of objective type test items
have been given below :




SPECIMEN QUESTIONS

Sub
ject: General Studies


I

Simple Multiple Choice type question:


1.

According to the Census


2001, Which one of the following Indian States has the
maximum population in India after Uttar Pradesh ?


(a)

West Bengal

(b)

Maharashtra

(c)

Bihar

(d)

Tamil Nadu


2.

Which one of

the following statements is not correct ?


(a)

In Lok Sabha, a no
-
confidence motion has to set out the grounds on which it is
based

(b)

In the case of a no
-
confidence motion in Lok Sabha, no conditions of admissibility
have been laid down in the Rules.

(c)

A moti
on of no
-
confidence, once admitted, has to be taken up within ten days of
the leave being granted

(d)

Rajya Sabha is not empowered to entertain a motion of no
-
confidence


3.

A and B start from the same point and in the same direction at 7 a.m. to walk around a

rectangular field 400 m x 300 m. A and B walk at the rate of 3 km/hr and 2.5 km/hr
respectively. How many times shall they cross each other if they continue to walk till 12.30
p.m. ?

(a)

Not even once

(b)

Once

(c)

Twice

(d)

Thrice







II

Multiple Selection type quest
ions:



4.

Consider the following statements :



1.

Adam Osborne produced the first portable computer.


2.

Ian Wilmut created the first cloned sheep.



Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?


(a)

1 only

(b)

2 only

(c)

Both 1 and 2

(d)

Neither 1 nor 2


5.

Con
sider the following statements :



1.

Kyoto Protocol came into force in the year 2005.


2.

Kyoto Protocol deals primarily with the depletion of the Ozone



layer.

3.

Methane as a greenhouse gas is more harmful than carbon dioxide.




Which of the statemen
ts given above is/are correct ?


(a)

1 and 2

(b)

1 and 3

(c)

1 only

(d)

3 only


6.

Consider the following statements :


1.

The Chinese pilgrim Fa
-
Hien attended the fourth Great Buddist council held by
Kanishka.


2.

The Chinese pilgrim Hiuen
-
Tsang met Harsha and found him
to be antagonistic to
Buddhism.



Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?


(a)

1 only

(b)

2 only

(c)

Both 1 and 2

(d)

Neither 1 nor 2


7.

Consider the following statements :


1.

India is the only country in the world producing all the five known commercial
va
rieties of silk.




2.

India is the largest producer of sugar in the world.



Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?


(a)

1 only

(b)

2 only

(c)

Both 1 and 2

(d)

Neither 1 nor 2

III

Matching List type questions:


8.

Match List
-
1 (Minerals) with List
-
II (Locat
ion) and select the correct answer using the
codes given below the Lists:





List
-
I




List
-
II




(Minerals)



(Location)



A.


Coal



1.

Giridih


B.


Copper



2.

Jayamkondam


C.


Manganese


3.

Alwar


D.


Lignite


4.

Dharwar



Codes:


A

B

C

D


(a)

1

4

3

2


(b)

2

3

4

1


(c)

1

3

4

2

(d)

2

4

3

1


9.

Match List
-
I (National Park/Sanctuary) with list
-
II (State) and select the correct answer
using the codes given below the Lists:




List
-
I








List
-
II


(National Park/Sanctuary)




(State)


A.

Kanger Ghati National Park


1.

Chhattisgarh

B.

Nagerhole National Park



2.

Haryana

C.

Kugti Wildlife Sanctuary



3.

Himachal Pradesh

D.

Sultanpur Bird Sanctuary



4.

Karnataka




Codes:


A

B

C

D


(a)

3

2

1

4


(b)

1

4

3

2


(c)

3

4

1

2

(d)

1

2

3

4





10.

Match List
-
I (Fuel Gases) with List
-
II (Major Constituents) and select the correct answer
using the codes given below the Lists:




List
-
I








List
-
II



(Fuel Gases)




(Major Constituents)



A.

CNG




1.

Carbon monoxide, Hydrogen


B.

C
oal Gas



2.

Butane, Propane


C.

LPG




3.

Methane, Ethane


D.

Water Gas



4.

Hydrogen, Methane,

Carbon monoxide

Codes:


A

B

C

D


(a)

2

1

3

4


(b)

3

4

2

1


(c)

2

4

3

1


(d)

3

1

2

4


IV

Assertion
-
Reason type questions:


Directions:
-



The following
4 (Four
)

items consist of two statements; one labelled as the ‘Assertion (A)
and the other as ‘Reason (R)’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and
select the answers to these items using the codes given below:



Codes:

(a)

Both A and R are individual
ly true and R is the correct explanation of A.

(b)

Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.

(c)

A is true but R is false.

(d)

A is false but R is true.


11.

Assertion

(A) :

West
-

flowing rivers of Peninsular India have no





d
eltas.



Reason

(R) :

These Rivers do not carry any alluvial sediments.


12.

Assertion

(A) :

India does not export natural rubber.



Reason (R) :

About 97% of India’s demand for natural rubber is met from
domestic production.




13.

Assertion

(A) :

Amoeba reproduces by fission



Reason

(R) :

All unicellular organisms reproduce by asexual





methods.


14.

Assertion

(A) :

The main constituent of the Liquefied Petroleum





Gas is methane.



Reason

(R) :

Methane can be used directl
y for burning in homes

and factories where it can be supplied through pipelines.

V

Sequencing type questions:


15.

Consider the following Viceroys of India during the British rule:



1.

Lord Curzon


2.

Lord Chelmsford


3.

Lord Hadinge


4.

Lord Irwin


Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of their tenure ?


(a)

1

3

2

4


(b)

2

4

1

3


(c)

1

4

2

3


(d)

2

3

1

4



16.

Consider the following events during India’s freedom struggle :



1.

Chauri
-
chaura Outrage


2.

Minto
-
Morley Reforms


3.

Montagu
-
Chel
msford Reforms


Which one of the following is the correct chronological order of the events given above?


(a)

1

3

2

4


(b)

2

4

1

3


(c)

1

4

2

3


(d)

2

3

1

4



17.

Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given substances in the
decreasing order of their
densities ?


(a)

Steel > Mercury > Gold

(b)

Gold > Mercury > Steel

(c)

Steel > Gold > Mercury

(d)

Gold > Steel > Mercury


18.

What is the correct sequence of the following events :



1.

Rowlatt Act


2.

Hunter Report


3.

Jallianwala Bagh Massacre



Select the correct answe
r from the code below:



(a)

1,

3,

2


(b)

1,

2,

3


(c)

3,

1,

2


(d)

2,

1,

3


NUMBER OF RECRUITMENT TESTS HELD/TO BE HELD, 2007 & 2008


1.

Recruitment to the 81 Posts of General Duty Medical Officer : Test held on 24.06.2007

in the Health Department, Gov
t. of Pondicherry.



No. of candidates applied

:


834


No. of candidates appeared

:


503


No. of candidates called for Interview :


275



Centres

: Bhopal, Chennai, Delhi, Dispur, Jammu, Kolkata, Lucknow, Mumbai & Port Blair.


Syllabus :



Paper
-
I


Gener
al Medicine and Paediatrics.

Paper
-
II

Surgery, Gynaecology & Obstetrics and Preventive & Social Medicine.


2.

Recruitment to the 28 posts of Junior Works Manager : Test held on 16.12.2007

(Mechanical) in Ordnance Factory Board,

Department of Defence Prod
uction, Ministry of Defence.



No. of candidates applied

:


1961


No. of candidates appeared

:


1021


No. of candidates called for Interview :


92



Centres

: Bhopal, Chennai, Delhi, Dispur, Jammu, Kolkata, Lucknow, Mumbai & Port Blair.



Syllabus:


Stat
ics and Dynamics, Kinematics and Dynamics of Machines, Machine Design,
Mechanics of Solids, Production Technology, Manufacturing Science including Machine
Tools, Metrology, Industrial Engineering, Thermodynamics, Heat Transfer, Fluid
Mechanics, Refrigerati
on and Air Conditioning.


3.

Recruitment to the 21 posts of Junior Time Scale/


:


Test held on
16.12.2007

Assistant Works Manager (Prob.) (Chemical Engineers)


in the Department of Defence Production,

Ordnance Factory Board, Ministry of Defence.



No. of c
andidates applied

:


1095


No. of candidates appeared

:



375


No. of candidates called for Interview :




66



Centres

: Bhopal, Chennai, Delhi, Dispur, Jammu, Kolkata, Lucknow, Mumbai & Port Blair.


Syllabus:


Heat Transfer, Mass Transfer, Fluid Mechan
ics, Chemical Engineering, Thermodynamics,
Reaction Engineering, Process Equipment Design, Process Control and Instrumentation,
Fuel Technology, safety and hazards in Process Industries, Pressure Vessels.



4.

Recruitment to the 23 posts of Medical Officer T
est held on 03.08.2008


(Homoeopathy) in the Directorate of ISM & Homoeopathy,

Govt. of NCT of Delhi.



No. of candidates applied

:


6529


No. of candidates appeared

:


3951


No. of candidates called for Interview :


96



Centres

: Bhopal, Chennai, Delh
i, Dispur, Jammu, Kolkata, Lucknow, Mumbai & Port Blair.


Syllabus:


(a)

Materia Medica (b) Practice of Medicine (c) Organon of Medicine (d) Surgery (e) Pathology
(f) Preventive & Social Medicine (g) Forensic Medicine & Toxicology (h) Physiology &
Biochemistry

(i) Anatomy (j) Gynaecology & Obstetrics (k) Repertory and (l) Pharmacy.



5.

Recruitment to the 38 Posts of Assistant Public Prosecutors:

Test held on 03.08.2008

in the Directorate of Prosecution, Government of NCT of Delhi.




No. of candidates applied

:


3008


No. of candidates appeared

:


1878


No. of candidates called for Interview :



134



Centres

: Bhopal, Chennai, Delhi, Dispur, Jammu, Kolkata, Lucknow & Mumbai.


Syllabus:


Criminal Law Including IPC and CrPC, Constitutional Law and Evidence Law.




6.


Recruitment to the 04 posts of Assistant Director


(Hindi Typewriting & Hindi Stenography) in the

:



Test held on
10.08.2008


Central Hindi Training Institute, Department of Official Languages,


Ministry of Home affairs.




No. of candidates applie
d

:


39


No. of candidates appeared

:


29


No. of candidates called for Interview :


12



Centres

: UPSC, Examination Hall Building.




Syllabus.


Proficiency in Hindi stenography with the speed of 100 words per minute in Hindi
Shorthand and 4
0 words per minute in Hindi Typewriting.



7.


Recruitment to the 100 posts of Junior Works Manager : Test to be held on 14.12.2008

(Mechanical) in Ordnance Factory Board,

Ministry of defence, Govt. of India.



No. of candidates applied

:


2863



No. of

candidates appeared

:


---


No. of candidates called for Interview :


---




Centres

: Bhopal, Chennai, Delhi, Dispur, Jammu, Kolkata, Lucknow, Mumbai & Port Blair.



Syllabus :


Statics and Dynamics, Kinematics and Dynamics of Machines, Machine Design,

Mechanics of Solids, Production Technology, Manufacturing Science including Machine
Tools, Metrology, Industrial Engineering, Thermodynamics, Heat Transfer, Fluid
Mechanics, Refrigeration and Air Conditioning.



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