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droppercauseNetworking and Communications

Oct 28, 2013 (3 years and 9 months ago)

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CCNA quiz

C
hapter 1


1.

Which of the following is used to describe the rated throughput capacity of a given network
medium?

A. bandwidth


B. baseband


C. delay



D. latency

2.

Which protocol data units are forwarded by a router?

A. bits



B. frames



C. packets


D. segments

3.

Why are the pairs of wires twisted together in UTP cable?

A.

Twisting of the wires makes six pairs fit in the space of four pairs.

B.

Twisting of the wires makes it less expensive.

C.

Twisting of the wires makes it thinner.

D.

Twisting of the wires reduc
es noise problems.

4.

What is required for electrons to flow?

A.

a closed loop of conductors

B.

an open loop of insulators

C.

a closed loop of insulators

D.

an open loop of conductors

5.

Which of the following is a characteristic of fiber optic cable?

A.

It uses an intense inc
andescent light.

B.

Its core is made of highly reflective Kevlar.

C.

It relies on total internal cancellation to guide light for long distances.

D.

It is capable of higher data rates than other types of networking media.

6.

Which numbering system uses 2 as its base?

A
. octal


B. hexadecimal


C. binary



D. ASCII

7.

Which of the following types of transport media are used in 10 Gigabit Ethernet
implementations? (Choose three)

A.

Category 5 STP cable

B.

Category 5e UTP cable

C.

Category 5e STP cable

D.

62.5 micrometer multi
-
mode fiber

E.

10 micrometer single mode fiber

F.

50 micrometer multi
-
mode fiber

8.

Which of the following describes the time delay when a frame starts from its source and
reaches its destination?

A. bandwidth


B. latency

C. attenuation


D. Time
-
To
-
Live


E. Frame Check Sum

9.

Whi
ch of the following is a network type that is widely used in dialup networking?

A. shared media

B. point
-
to
-
point

C. extended shared media

D. point
-
to
-
multipoint

10.

Which of the following best describes the function of a router?

A.

A router screens network traff
ic based on source and destination MAC addressing.

B.

A

router extends the operating distance of a network by regenerating digital signals.

C.

A

router acts as a multi
-
port repeater and occupies the center of a star topology network.

D.

A

router forwards packets fr
om one network to another based on network layer information.

11.

Which of the following protocols use the Layer 4 UDP protocol? (Choose three)

A. SMTP


B.
SNMP


C. FTP


D.

DNS


E.
TFTP


F. HTTP


12.

Determine the following descriptions are true or false.


A.

A WAN c
onnects physically adjacent devices. (true or false)

F

B.

A LAN operates over limited geographic area. (true or false)

T

C.

A WAN provides full
-
time remote resources connected. (true or false)

T

D.

A LAN operates over large geographic area. (true or false)

F

E.

A WAN

operates over serial connections. (true or false)

T

F.

Many users have access to high
-
bandwidth media on a WAN.

F


13.

Which of the following is a difference between multi
-
mode and single
-
mode FDDI media?

D

A.

Multi
-
mode is recommended for use between buildings.

B.

Mu
lti
-
mode can be run longer distances than single
-
mode.

C.

Multi
-
mode is capable of higher bandwidths than single
-
mode.

D.

Multi
-
mode uses LEDs as the light
-
generating devices while single
-
mode uses lasers.


14.

Which of the following are attributes of multi
-
mode fib
er? (Choose t
wo
)

A,C

A.

allows for many incident angles

B.

used for distances up to 3000 meters

C.

uses LEDs or lasers as a light source

D.

more expensive than single
-
mode fiber

E.

higher bandwidth than single
-
mode fiber


15.

Which Ethernet connections use straight through
cable? (Choose two)

B,C

A. router
-
to
-
computer


B. router
-
to
-
hub

C. router
-
to
-
switch


D. router
-
to
-
router


Chapter 2

1.

Which of the following is the correct definition of SNMP? B

A.

remotely access and execute commands on another computer

B.

monitor and control ne
twork devices

C.

translation of names to IP addresses

D.

connectionless transfer of files using UDP

E.

connection
-
oriented file transfer Using TCP

F.

transmission of e
-
mail over computer networks

2.

Which of the following is the correct definition of TFTP? D

A.

remotely ac
cess and execute commands on another computer

B.

monitor and control network devices

C.

translation of names to IP addresses

D.

connectionless transfer of files using UDP

E.

connection
-
oriented file transfer Using TCP

F.

transmission of e
-
mail over computer networks

3. W
hich of the following is the correct definition of SMTP? F

A.

remotely access and execute commands on another computer

B.

monitor and control network devices

C.

translation of names to IP addresses

D.

connectionless transfer of files using UDP

E.

connection
-
oriented file

transfer Using TCP

F.

transmission of e
-
mail over computer networks

4. Which of the following is the correct definition of FTP? E

A.

remotely access and execute commands on another computer

B.

monitor and control network devices

C.

translation of names to IP address
es

D.

connectionless transfer of files using UDP

E.

connection
-
oriented file transfer Using TCP

F.

transmission of e
-
mail over computer networks

5. Which of the following is the correct definition of DNS? C

A.

remotely access and execute commands on another computer

B.

monitor and control network devices

C.

translation of names to IP addresses

D.

connectionless transfer of files using UDP

E.

connection
-
oriented file transfer Using TCP

F.

transmission of e
-
mail over computer networks

6. Which of the following is the correct definiti
on of Telnet? A

A.

remotely access and execute commands on another computer

B.

monitor and control network devices

C.

translation of names to IP addresses

D.

connectionless transfer of files using UDP

E.

connection
-
oriented file transfer Using TCP

F.

transmission of e
-
mail

over computer networks


7. Which port number is used by HTTP? D

A. Port 53


B. Port 69

C. Port 25

D. Port 80

E. Port 21

F. Port 21


Chapter 3


1.

Which options of the following are the description of TCP? (Choose four)

A.

reliable

B.

no flow control

C.

reassembles me
ssages at destination host

D.

re
-
sends anything not received

E.

does not reassemble incoming messages

F.

unreliable

G.

connectionless

H.

connection
-
oriented


2.

When talking with a person whose primary language is different from yours, you may need to
repeat your words and
speak more slowly. Which TCP functions are
analogous

to these
communication strategies?

a)

segmentation and PAR

b)

reliability and flow control

c)

unreliable transport and buffers

d)

synchronization and expectational acknowledgements


3.

Which of the following are includ
ed exclusively in a TCP segment? (Choose three)

A. sequence number


B. source port


C. window


D. data

E. destination port



F. HLEN


4.

Which options of the following are the description of UDP? (Choose four) B, E, F, G

A.

reliable

B.

no flow control

C.

reassembles m
essages at destination host

D.

re
-
sends anything not received

E.

does not reassemble incoming messages

F.

unreliable

G.

connectionless

H.

connection
-
oriented


5.

Which of the following are primary duties of the OSI transport layer? (Choose two) B,C

A.

path determination

B.

end
-
to
-
end connectivity

C.

flow control

D.

security control

E.

data representation

F.

encryption of data


6. Which of the following is a feature of TCP? D

A.

exchanges datagrams without acknowledgments

B.

error processing handled through other protocols

C.

connectionless

D.

windowing


7. Which of the following describes TCP windowing? C

A.

a technique used by network administrators in determining the size of segments sent through a
network

B.

a means of determining the number of segments sent to a destination through an
administratively defi
ned time window

C.

a dynamic means to establish the number of segments sent to a destination before
acknowledgment

D.

a technique to calculate the number of e
-
mail segments that can be sent through a router
during a given time slot


8. An Internet server is runn
ing both FTP and HTTP services. How does the server know which of
these applications should handle an incoming segment? C

A.

The packet header identifies it as an HTTP or FTP packet.

B.

T
he data in the segment is specially formatted for either HTTP or FTP.

C.

T
he s
egment destination port number identifies the application that should handle it.

D.

T
he source port number is associated with one of these well known server applications.


9. The TCP header contains a 16 bit field called

window

.
W
hat does the number in this

field
signify? B

A.

It is an address range in memory, where data bytes can be deposited after processing.

B.

I
t is the amount of data that can be transmitted before the source requires an acknowledgment.

C.

I
t is the minimum number of bytes that a software process

can have and still process data
rapidly
.

D.

I
t is the amount of time allowed for the source to transmit data to the destination before an
acknowledgment is received.

10. Which of the following fields are contained in both UDP and TCP headers? A

A. port numb
er

B. window size

C. sequence number

D. acknowledgment number


11. Before transmitting data, two communicating devices using TCP must synchronize
communications.
W
hich term describes the procedure used to accomplish this synchronization? B

A.

acknowledgment

B.

3
-
way handshake

C.

retransmission

D.

sequencing

E.

initialization

12. Which of the following allows the client computer, shown in the graphic, to access and keep
track of multiple application sessions with the server? C

A.

multiple IP addresses

B.

multiple MAC addresses

C.

m
ultiple port numbers

D.

multiple computers



C
hapter 4

1
.Which functions do routers perform when routing a packet? (Choose two.)


A:packet switching

B:destination host addressing

C:path selection

D:VLAN membership assignment

E:ARP request forwarding

Correct
Answers: A, C


2
.Which of the following IP addresses can be assigned to host devices? (Choose two.)


A:205.7.8.32/27

Binary(32)=00100000

B:191.168.10.2/23

C:127.0.0.1

D:224.0.0.10

E:203.123.45.47/28

Binary(47)=00101111

F:10.10.0.0/13

Binar
y(10)=00001010

Correct Answers: B, F


3
.What is the subnetwork number of a host with an IP address of 172.16.210.0/22?


A: 172.16.42.0

Binary(210)=11010010 Binary(208)=11010000

B: 172.16.107.0

C: 172.16.208.0

D: 172.16.252.0

E: 172.16.254.0

Correct Answers: C

4.

Which of the following commands will send multiple IP packets to a specified destination?

B

A. debug


B. ping


C. ipconfig


D. echo


5.

How many usable Class C networks are created with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.240?

D

A. 8



B. 10


C. 12


D. 14


E. 16


F. 18


6.

Which networking device can make traffic forwarding decisions based on IP addressing? C

A. bridge


B. hub


C. router



D. MAU


7.

A modular port router has a serial card installed in slot 1 that has two ports.
W
hich of the
followi
ng would be the correct syntax to identify the interfaces? (Choose two) B,C

A. serial 0/0


B. serial 1/0


C. serial 1/1


D. serial 0/1

8.

Which of the following addresses is an example of a broadcast address for a Class B network
with a 16
-
bit subnet mask? D

A. 147.1.1.1


B. 147.13.0.0


C. 147.14.255.0


D. 147.14.255.255

9.

How many usable host addresses are available on a Class C network with a default subnet
mask? B

A. 128


B. 254


C. 255


D. 256

10.

What type of routing uses information that is manually entered in
to the routing table? C

A. dynamic


B. interior


C. static


D. standard

11.

Which of the following addresses is a Class B host address with a 16
-
bit subnet mask? C

A. 192.14.0.0


B. 123.90.78.45


C. 129.68.11.45


D. 125.33.23.56


12.

Which of the following describ
es the address assignment method of DHCP? B

A.

A device obtains its IP address when it knows its MAC address.

B.

A
ssigns IP addresses dynamically from a range of addresses.

C.

A

device learns its MAC address when it knows its IP address.

D.

A
ddress directly configured

by network administrator.

E.

A
ssigns IP address and gateway based on static profile.

F.

A

router sends an ARP response on behalf of an end node to the requesting host.


13.

Which of the following describes dynamic routing? B

E.

It requires routes to be manually confi
gured.

F.

I
t automatically adjusts to changing network conditions.

G.

I
t is used when there is only one path to a destination network.

H.

I
t is more cumbersome, time
-
consuming, and expensive than manual route administration.


14. Which of the following best describ
es the function of a router? D

A router screens network traffic based on source and destination MAC addressing.

A

router extends the operating distance of a network by regenerating digital signals.

A

router acts as a multi
-
port repeater and occupies the ce
nter of a star topology network.

A

router forwards packets from one network to another based on network layer information.


15. How many host bits are available in the subnet mask 255.255.248.0? C

A. 8



B. 9



C. 11


D. 13


16. In an IP packet header, wh
ich fields deal specifically with IP addressing? (Choose two) A,D

A. source address


B. padding


C. HLEN


D. destination


17.
Which of the following contains the information needed by a router to make path selection
decisions?

A. ARP tables


B. DNS tables


C. host tables


D. routing tables

18.

Which of the following is distance vector exterior routing protocol? E

A. RIP


B. IGRP


C. OSPF


D. EIGRP


E. BGP

19.

Which of the following is link state interior routing protocol? C

A. RIP


B. IGRP


C. OSPF


D. EIGRP


E.
BGP

20.

Which of the following is distance vector interior routing protocol? A

A. RIP


B. IGRP


C. OSPF


D. EIGRP


E. BGP

21.

Which of the following is Cisco

s distance vector interior routing protocol? B

A. RIP


B. IGRP


C. OSPF


D. EIGRP


E. BGP


22.

Which of the
following is used by a router running RIP to determine the best path to take
when forwarding data? C

A.

the host portion of the network address

B.

speed of network convergence

C.

the calculated metric for the destination network

D.

number of broadcasts
occurring

on an

interface

E.

number of errors
occurring

on an interface


23.

Which of the following describe the routing protocol OSPF? (Choose four) A,B,E,G

A.

link state routing protocol

B.

event triggered updates

C.

uses load balancing

D.

proprietary protocol developed by Cisco

E.

uses sho
rtest path first algorithm

F.

topology and timed updates

G.

uses link state algorithms


Chapter 5


1.

What is the topology if one central hub has four hubs connected to it, and each of those four
hubs has four workstations attached?

D

A. a bus


B. a ring



C. a st
ar



D. an extended star

2.

Which physical topology is used to connect one host to the next and last to first?

C

A. star


B. bus


C. ring


D. extended star


E. mesh

3.

Which physical topology is used to link individual stars together?

D

A. star


B. bus


C. ring


D. extended star


E. mesh

4.

Which physical topology connects all cables to a single point?

A

A. star


B. bus


C. ring


D. extended star


E. mesh

5.

Which physical topology uses a single backbone cable?

B

A. star


B. bus


C. ring


D. extended star


E. mesh

6.

Whic
h of the following will cause a collision on an Ethernet network? B

A.

two nodes having the same MAC address

B.

two or more nodes transmitting at the same time

C.

non
-
OSI compliant protocols running on the network

D.

multiple routed protocols running on the same netwo
rk

7.

Which of the following statements regarding switches is correct? D

A.

They encapsulate segments into packets.

B.

T
raffic is regulated using Layer 1 addressing.

C.

T
hey are designed for token ring networks.

D.

T
hey have the connectivity of a hub combined with the t
raffic regulation of a bridge.

E.

Which of the following manages communication between a specific Layer 2 LAN technology
and network layer protocols? C

A. FCS


B. IEEE 802.3


C. LLC


D. MAC

8.

How does a receiving host detect that there has been an error during

transmission of a frame?
B

A.

It checks the type/length field to make sure the frame is not too small.

B.

I
t compares the FCS included in the frame to the FCS that it recalculates.

C.

I
t calculates a checksum from the data in the frame and sends it back to the sou
rce for
verification.

D.

I
t checks the start frame field and the stop frame field to make sure the data field is the correct
length.

9.

Which of the following is a drawback of the CSMA/CD media access control protocol? A

a)

Collisions can decrease network performan
ce.

b)

I
t is more complex than non
-
deterministic protocols.

c)

D
eterministic media access protocols slow network performance.

d)

CSMA/CD LAN technologies are only available at slower speeds than other LAN
technologies.

10.

Which specific technologies match Token Ring?
(Choose two) C,
F

e)

logical dual ring topology

f)

logical bus topology

g)

logical ring topology

h)

physical ring topology

i)

physical dual ring topology

j)

physical star topology

11.

How many hosts or workstations may be connected to an individual 10BASE2 segment? E

A. 1


B.

2


C. 10


D. 20


E. 30


F. 50

12.

Which of the following is considered to be a multi
-
port bridge? B

A. hub


B. switch



C. router



D. repeater

13.

Which of the following is an accurate description of an Ethernet variety? C

G.

100Base
-
FX uses multi
-
mode fiber and tr
ansmits at 10 Mbps.

H.

10Base2 uses two pairs in a CAT3 cable and transmits at 10 Mbps.

I.

10Base
-
T uses two wire pairs in a CAT5 cable and transmits at 10 Mbps.

J.

10Base
-
TX uses all four pairs in a CAT5 cable and transmits at 100 Mbps.

14.

Which of the following are
copper UTP based technologies? (Choose two) A,F

A. 10BASE
-
T


B. 10BASE5


C. 10BASE2


D. 100BASE
-
FX

E. 100BASE5


F. 100BASE
-
TX

15.

Which of the following is the maximum cable length standard of 10BASE2? B

A. 100m



B. 185m



C. 412m



D. 500m

16.

Which of the follo
wing is the maximum cable length standard of 10BASE5? D

A. 100m



B. 185m



C. 412m



D. 500m

17.

Which of the following is the maximum cable length standard of 100BASE
-
TX? A

A. 100m



B. 185m



C. 412m



D. 500m

18.


CompA


is trying to locate a new computer name
d

CompB


on the network.
W
hich of the
following does

CompA


broadcast to find the MAC address of

CompB

? B

A. MAC request

B. ARP request

C. ping


D. Telnet


E. proxy ARP

19.

Which Ethernet LAN device can allow bandwidth utilization to approach 100%? D

A. a

bridge


B. a hub


C. a router


D. a switch

20.

When is a RARP request made? A

A.

when a source knows its MAC address but not its IP address

B.

when a source knows its IP address but not its MAC address

C.

when a source knows the destination MAC address but not the IP
address

D.

when a source knows the destination IP address but not the MAC address

21.

What is the destination address of an ARP request? B

A.

a broadcast IP address

B.

a broadcast MAC address

C.

the default gateway IP address

D.

the default gateway MAC address

22.

Which of the
following describes the address assignment method of ARP? C

A.

A device obtains its IP address when it knows its MAC address.

B.

A
ssigns IP addresses dynamically from a range of addresses.

C.

A

device learns its MAC address when it knows its IP address.

D.

A
ddress dir
ectly configured by network administrator.

E.

A
ssigns IP address and gateway based on static profile.

F.

A

router sends an ARP response on behalf of an end node to the requesting host.

23.

Wh
ich devices can segment an Ethernet collision domain
? (Choose t
hree
)

B,C,D

A. hub


B. router


C. switch


D. bridge


E. repeater


F. workstation