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CCNA 640
-
607 Practice Exam Four

1

Copyright © 2000
-

2002 CCxx Productions. All rights reserved. Do not duplicate or
redist
ribute in any form.

What are the three commonly used methods of flow control used

for handling network congestion?


A.

Buffering

B.

Source
-
quench messages

C.

Error checking

D.

Windowing


Answer: A, B, and D


Buffering is used by “network devices” to temporarily store
bursts of excess da
ta in memory until they can be processed.
Source
-
quench messages are used by “receiving devices” to help
their buffers from overflowing. Windowing is when the source
device requires an acknowledgement from the destination after
a certain number of packets
have been transmitted.




What are some characteristics of routing protocols?


A. Send periodic updates.

B. Have a separate hello mechanism.

C. Exchange information about links.

D.

Exchange information about routes.

E.

All of the above


Answer: E


Routing p
rotocols, protocols that use a specific algorithm to
compute routing processing have certain features in common.
Among them are sending periodic internetwork updates, generate
hello packets, exchange link and route change information.



A Novell IPX addres
s is made up of: (Choose two)


A. Ipx schema number

B. Network number

C. Node number

D. Node schema number


Answer: B and C


Internetwork Packet Exchange (IPX) is a NetWare network layer
(Layer 3) protocol used for transferring network LAN data from
wo
rkstations to servers. The IPX address consists of 80 bits;
32 bits for the network number and 48 bits for the node
number.









CCNA 640
-
607 Practice Exam Four

2

Copyright © 2000
-

2002 CCxx Productions. All rights reserved. Do not duplicate or
redist
ribute in any form.

ISDN provides for what technology applications? Choose three.


A. voice

B. data

C. IEEE 4.2

D. frame relay

E. video


Ans
wer: A, B, and E


Integrated Services Digital Network (ISDN) allows telephone
networks to carry data, voice, and video. ISDN, seen as a cost
effective alternative to Frame Relay, is used widely with
remote access applications such as telecommuting and re
mote
office connectivity.




Which of the following are true regarding network
-
layer
addresses? Choose three.


A.

Also known as phantom addresses

B.

They identify an entity at the network layer of the OSI
layers

C.

Also known as virtual addresses

D.

Also known as logi
cal addresses

E.

The relationship between a network address and a device is
fixed


Answer: B, C, and D


A network
-
layer address identifies an entity at the network
layer of the OSI layers. They usually exist within a
hierarchical address space and are sometim
es called virtual or
logical addresses. The relationship between a network address
and a device is logical and unfixed.



LAN protocols function at which two layers of the OSI reference model?


A.

Application

B.

Presentation

C.

Network

D.

Data Link

E.

Physical


Answer: D

and E


LAN protocols function at the physical and data link layers of the OSI
reference model.








CCNA 640
-
607 Practice Exam Four

3

Copyright © 2000
-

2002 CCxx Productions. All rights reserved. Do not duplicate or
redist
ribute in any form.

Which network applications run over UDP?


A. SNMP

B. RPC

C. DNS

D. TFPT

E. IPX


Answer: A, B, and C


User Datagram Protocol (UDP) does not offer wi
ndowing or flow
control. The applications that run on top of UDP include:


Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) : port 161

Remote
-
procedure call (RPC) : port 111

Domain Name Server (DNS) : port 53




Addresses are assigned to devices as one of three t
ypes. What are the
three types?


A.

Server address

B.

Workstation address

C.

Router address

D.

Static address

E.

Dynamic address


Answer: A, D, and E


Server assigned addresses are assigned by a server and given to the
devices as they connect to the network. They are rec
ycled for reuse as
devices disconnect. Static addresses are assigned by a network
administrator. They do not change until the network administrator
manually changes them. Dynamic addresses are obtained by devices when
they attach to the network.




Define
latency when working with network performance.


A. network performance problems that come up at a later time

B. network problems that are hidden and come out during


network overload.

C. time between network implementation and problem


diagnosis.

D.
time between a frame being ready for transmission and the


successful transmission

E. late enhancements to network protocol queuing


Answer: D



Latency is another name for network delay. The network delay is the
time it takes from a frame being ready
for network transmission until
the time that the transmission is successful. Latency, or network delay
is a function of a great deal of factors including protocol, media and
network design.

CCNA 640
-
607 Practice Exam Four

4

Copyright © 2000
-

2002 CCxx Productions. All rights reserved. Do not duplicate or
redist
ribute in any form.

LAN protocols typically use which of the following two methods to
access the physical network medium?


A.

UTP

B.

CSMA/CD

C.

FDDI

D.

Token passing


Answer: B and D


LAN protocols typically use “carrier sense multiple access collision
detect” (CSMA/CD) and “token passing” to access the physical network
medium.




What layers does a gi
ven layer in the OSI model generally communicate
with. Choose the best three answers.


A.

The layer directly above it

B.

All the layers above or below it

C.

All the layers above it

D.

The layer directly below it

E.

Its peer layer in other networked computer systems


Answ
er: A, D, and E


A given layer in the OSI layers generally communicates with three other
OSI layers: the layer directly above it, the layer directly below it,
and its peer layer in other networked computer systems.




Match up the following OSI layers with

its corresponding encapsulation.


A. Physical







1. Segments

B. Transport






2. Packets or Datagrams

C. Data Link






3. Bits

D. Network







4. User Data

E. Application, Presentation, and Session


5. Frames


Answer: A
-
3, B
-
1, C
-
5, D
-
2, and E
-
4


Da
ta is encapsulated at each level of the OSI reference model. User
information is converted to data, data is converted to segments,
segments are converted to packets or datagrams, packets or datagrams
are converted to frames, and frames are converted to bit
s.

Application, Presentation, and Session layers correspond to user data,
the Transport layer corresponds to segments, the Network layer
corresponds to packets or datagrams, the Data Link layer corresponds to
frames, and the Physical layer corresponds to b
its.







CCNA 640
-
607 Practice Exam Four

5

Copyright © 2000
-

2002 CCxx Productions. All rights reserved. Do not duplicate or
redist
ribute in any form.

Which of the following are true regarding a MAC address.

Choose three.


A.

It consists of 32 bits

B.

It consists of 48 bits

C.

The first six hexadecimal digits are administered by the
IEEE and identify the manufacturer or vendor

D.

It is not unique

E.

It is s
ometimes called a BIA (burned
-
in address)


Answer: B, C, and E


Mac addresses are unique for each LAN interface. They are 48
bits in length and are expressed as 12 hexadecimal digits. The
first six hexadecimal digits are administered by the IEEE and
identi
fy the manufacturer or vendor. The last six comprise the
interface serial number. They are sometimes called BIAs
(burned
-
in addresses) and are related to data
-
link addresses
and the IEEE sublayers of the Data Link layer.




Which Cisco IOS commands would b
e very helpful when testing

a network design?


A. show access
-
lists

B. show processes

C. ping

D. show buffers

E. show interface

F.

All of the above


Answer: F


All of the Cisco IOS commands listed will be
helpful when testing a
network design. Show access
-
l
ists will assist in network security
configuration. Show processes will show CPU utilization. Ping will
assist in troubleshooting connectivity issues. Show buffers will report
on buffer usage.
Show interface will report broadcast rates.




What three proto
cols use predictable MAC addresses?


A.

IP

B.

IPX

C.

DECnet Phase IV

D.

XNS

E.

Vines


Answer: B, C, and D


The three protocols that use predictable MAC addresses are Internetwork
Packet Exchange (IPX), DECnet Phase IV, and Xerox Network Systems
(XNS).



CCNA 640
-
607 Practice Exam Four

6

Copyright © 2000
-

2002 CCxx Productions. All rights reserved. Do not duplicate or
redist
ribute in any form.

What three method
s are used most often for determining the MAC
address of a device?


A.

Ping

B.

ARP

C.

Route

D.

Hello protocol

E.

The MAC address is embedded in network
-
layer address or is
generated by an algorithm


Answer: B, D, and E


ARP maps network addresses to MAC addresses. The He
llo
protocol is a network
-
layer protocol that enables network
devices to identify one another and indicate that they are
still functional. A predictable MAC address is one where the
network layer either embeds the MAC address in the network
-
layer address o
r uses an algorithm to determine the MAC
address.



How are RIP routing protocol networks designed?


A. Hierarchy

B. Flat

C. Obtuse

D. Dynamic


Answer: B


Routing Information Protocol networks are flat networks. RIP is a
distance vector protocol that w
as used in the early years of the
internet. It is now being replaced by hierarchically designed networks
that rely on link state protocols such as Open Shortest Path First
(OSPF). A flat network has no real boundaries or hierarchy defined and
is best suit
ed for small networks. A hierarchically designed network
uses a layered modular design.



When does RIP routing use VLSM?


A. When IP addresses are running out.

B. RIP is not designed to handle VLSM.

C. When VLSM
-
1 doesn't work.

D. RIP is designed to han
dle VLSM
-
2 only.


Answer: B


Routing Information Protocol (RIP) networks are not designed
to handle Variable Length Subnet Masking (VLSM). VLSM is a
tool for efficient use of available IP addresses. With the
growth of the internet and the demand for IP a
ddresses, RIP
designed networks are being replaced with a more suitable
classless routing protocol that allows better use of available
IP addresses.



CCNA 640
-
607 Practice Exam Four

7

Copyright © 2000
-

2002 CCxx Productions. All rights reserved. Do not duplicate or
redist
ribute in any form.

EIGRP routers are configured to dynamically discover other

routers directly connected to it. Where is thi
s information

stored that is learned from other neighboring routers?


A. Neighbor Table

B. Router holdtime table

C. Mapping Table

D. Configuration Table


Answer: A


The neighbor table contains the information that each router
has received from its neig
hboring routers. The recorded
information is the address and interface through which each of
the neighboring routers can be reached. Also included in the
neighbor table is a HoldTime entry, which is the amount of
time that the router will see the neighbori
ng router as
reachable.




What are the four common LAN topologies?


A.

bus

B.

loop

C.

point
-
to
-
point

D.

ring

E.

point
-
to
-
multipoint

F.

star

G.

tree


Answer: A, D, F, and G


A bus topology is a linear LAN architecture. A ring topology is a LAN
architecture that consists of a s
eries of devices connected to one
another by unidirectional transmission links to form a single closed
loop. A star topology is a LAN architecture in which the endpoints on a
network are connected to a common central hub or switch by dedicated
links. A tre
e topology is a LAN architecture that is identical to the
bus topology except that branches with multiple nodes are possible.




Match the following LAN devices with the correct layer of the OSI
reference model. The same layer can be used more than once.


A. repeater



1. Network layer

B. router



2. Data Link layer

C. bridge



3. Physical Layer

D. hub




F.

switch


Answer: A
-
3, B
-
1, C
-
2, D
-
3, and F
-
2


Repeaters and hubs are Physical layer devices, bridges and switches are
Data Link layer devices, and routers
are Network layer devices.


CCNA 640
-
607 Practice Exam Four

8

Copyright © 2000
-

2002 CCxx Productions. All rights reserved. Do not duplicate or
redist
ribute in any form.

What three layers of the OSI reference model do WAN technologies
function at?


A.

Application

B.

Network

C.

Presentation

D.

Physical

E.

Session

F.

Data Link


Answer: B, D, and F


WAN technologies function at the Physical, Data Link, and Network
l
ayers of the OSI reference model.










Which of the following are true regarding a point
-
to
-
point
link? Choose two.


A.

Provides a single, pre
-
established WAN communications path
from the customer premises through a carrier network to a
remote network.

B.

Al
so known as private lines because the established path
can be used by only one circuit.

C.

These links accommodate one type of transmission called
datagram transmissions.

D.

Also known as leased lines because their established path
is permanent and fixed for eac
h remote network reached
through the carrier facilities.


Answer: A and D


A point
-
to
-
point link provides a single, pre
-
established WAN
communications path from the customer premises through a
carrier network to a remote network. They are also known as
lea
sed lines because their established path is permanent and
fixed for each remote network reached through the carrier
facilities. Point
-
to
-
point links can accommodate two types of
transmission called datagram transmissions and data
-
stream
transmissions.











CCNA 640
-
607 Practice Exam Four

9

Copyright © 2000
-

2002 CCxx Productions. All rights reserved. Do not duplicate or
redist
ribute in any form.

Which of the following are true regarding circuit switching?
Choose two.


A.

It is a WAN switching method in which a dedicated physical
circuit is established, maintained, and terminated through
a carrier network for each communication session.

B.

Circuit

switching accommodates one type of transmission
called data
-
stream transmissions.

C.

ISDN is an example of a circuit
-
switched WAN technology.

D.

Circuit switching is normally not used in telephone company
networks.


Answer: A and C


Circuit switching
is a WAN s
witching method in which a dedicated
physical circuit is established, maintained, and terminated through a
carrier network for each communication session. It is used extensively
in telephone company networks. ISDN
is an example of a circuit
-
switched
WAN te
chnology. Circuit switching accommodates two types of
transmission called datagram transmissions and data
-
stream
transmissions.




Which of the following are true regarding packet switching?
Choose two.


A.

A modem is used to enable devices to share packet sw
itching
circuits.

B.

ATM, Frame Relay, SMDS, and X.25 are all examples of
packet
-
switched WAN technologies.

C.

Packet switching is a WAN switching method in which network
devices share a single point
-
to
-
point link to transport
packets from a source to a destinat
ion across a carrier
network.

D.

A bridge is used to enable devices to share packet
switching circuits.


Answer: B and C






Packet switching is a WAN switching method in which network
devices share a single point
-
to
-
point link to transport
packets from a
source to a destination across a carrier
network. Statistical multiplexing is used to enable devices to
share packet switching circuits. Asynchronous Transfer Mode
(ATM), Frame Relay, Switched Multimegabit Data service (SMDS),
and X.25 are all examples of
packet
-
switched WAN technologies.










CCNA 640
-
607 Practice Exam Four

10

Copyright © 2000
-

2002 CCxx Productions. All rights reserved. Do not duplicate or
redist
ribute in any form.

Which of the following are true regarding switched virtual
circuits (SVCs) and permanent virtual circuits (PVCs)? Choose
two.


A.

SVCs and PVCs can use the same circuit.

B.

PVCs are permanently established virtual circu
its.

C.

SVCs and PVCs terminate the circuit when data transmission
is complete.

D.

SVCs are virtual circuits that are dynamically established
on demand and terminated when data transmission is
complete.


Answer: B and D


SVCs are virtual circuits that are dynami
cally established on demand
and terminated when data transmission is complete. PVCs are permanently
established virtual circuits. They always operate in one of two
operational states: data transfer or idle. Even if it is in idle state,
the connection betwe
en DTE devices is still active. SVCs and PVCs don’t
use the same circuit because PVCs have constant virtual
-
circuit
availability and SVCs terminate the circuit when data transmission is
complete. SVCs consist of four operational states: call setup, data
tr
ansfer, idle, and call termination.







What are two popular dial
-
up implementations used for
connectivity across WANs?


A.

Modem redundancy

B.

DDR (Dial
-
on
-
Demand routing)

C.

Switch backup

D.

Dial backup


Answer: B and D


Dial
-
up services offer cost
-
effective metho
ds for connectivity
across WANs. Two popular dial
-
up implementations are DDR and
dial backup. DDR
is a technique used by a router that can
automatically initiate and close a circuit
-
switched session as
transmitting end stations demand. Dial backup is a ser
vice
that activates a backup serial line under certain conditions.
Modem redundancy and Switch backup are not dial
-
up techniques.












CCNA 640
-
607 Practice Exam Four

11

Copyright © 2000
-

2002 CCxx Productions. All rights reserved. Do not duplicate or
redist
ribute in any form.

Which of the following are considered WAN devices? Choose
eight.


A.

CSU/DSU

B.

WAN switches

C.

Access servers

D.

Memory chips

E.

CD
-
ROM

F.

ISDN terminal adapters

G.

Router

H.

ATM switch

I.

Multiplexer

J.

Modem


Answer: A, B, C, F, G, H, I, and J


CSU/DSU’s, WAN switches, access servers, ISDN terminal adapters,
routers, ATM switches, multiplexers, and modems are all considered to
be WAN devices.




Bridges and switches operate at which layer of the OSI
reference model?


A.

Physical

B.

Data Link

C.

Network

D.

Transport


Answer: B


Bridges and switches operate at the Data Link layer of the OSI
reference model.






Routing involves which two of the following acti
vities?


A.

path determination

B.

transporting packets through the internetwork

C.

connecting two bridges

D.

activities that occur at the data link layer


Answer: A and B


Routing involves path determination and transporting packets
through an internetwork. Routing oc
curs at layer three
(network layer) of the OSI reference model.







CCNA 640
-
607 Practice Exam Four

12

Copyright © 2000
-

2002 CCxx Productions. All rights reserved. Do not duplicate or
redist
ribute in any form.

Which of the following are valid types of switches? Choose
two.


A.

Forward switch

B.

Single switch

C.

ATM switch

D.

LAN switch



Answer: C and D


Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM) switches provide h
igh speed switching
and scalable bandwidths in the workgroup, the enterprise network
backbone, and the wide area. They support voice, video, and data
applications and switch fixed
-
size information units called cells. LAN
switches are used to interconnect m
ultiple LAN segments. They are
designed to switch data frames at high speeds.




Two types of messages that routers use to communicate with
each other are:


A.

destination messages

B.

routing update messages

C.

LSA (link
-
state advertisement)

D.

optimal messages


Answe
r: B and C


A routing update message generally consists of all or a
portion of a routing table. An LSA (link
-
state advertisement)
informs other routers of the state of the sender’s links.
Destination messages and optimal messages are not types of
router me
ssages.




Which of the following are routing metrics? Choose three.


A.

overhead

B.

stability

C.

delay

D.

bandwidth

E.

link

F.

load


Answer: C, D, and F


Delay, bandwidth, and load are three routing metrics used to
determine the best route. Other routing metrics are hops,
ticks, path length, reliability, and cost.







CCNA 640
-
607 Practice Exam Four

13

Copyright © 2000
-

2002 CCxx Productions. All rights reserved. Do not duplicate or
redist
ribute in any form.

Which of the following are true regarding routed protocols?
Choose two.


A.

Routed protocols include IGRP and EIGRP.

B.

Routing protocols include IP and DECnet.

C.

Routed protocols are transported by routing protocol
s
across an internetwork.

D.

Routed protocols include IP and DECnet.


Answer: C and D


Routed protocols are transported by routing protocols across
an internetwork. Routed protocols include IP, DECnet,
AppleTalk, IPX, OSI, Banyan Vines, and XNS. Routing proto
cols
are protocols that implement routing algorithms. Examples of
routing protocols include, IGRP, EIGRP, OSPF, EGP, RIP, BGP,
and IS
-
IS.




What is the technique used by a router that can automatically
initiate and close a circuit
-
switched session?



A.

PLP

B.

LAPP

C.

ASN.1

D.

DDR


Answer: D


DDR (Dial
-
on
-
demand routing)
is the technique used by a router
that can automatically initiate and close a circuit
-
switched
session. PLP (packet
-
layer protocol) is the network layer
protocol in the X.25 stack. LAPP doesn’t exist.

ASN.1
(Abstract Syntax Notation One) is an OSI language for
describing data types independent of particular computer
structures and representation techniques.



Match the following routing protocols with their routing
algorithm.


A.

OSPF


1. Distance Vector

B.

IGRP


2. Link
-
State

C.

RIP

D.

IS
-
IS

E.

NLSP

F.

RTMP

G.

AURP

H.

BGP



Answer: A
-
2, B
-
1, C
-
1, D
-
2, E
-
2, F
-
1, G
-
1, H
-
1


IGRP, RIP, RTMP, and AURP are distance vector routing protocols. BGP is
a path
-
vector routing protocol, which is a derivative of a distance
vector routing pr
otocol. OSPF, IS
-
IS, and NLSP are link
-
state routing
protocols.

CCNA 640
-
607 Practice Exam Four

14

Copyright © 2000
-

2002 CCxx Productions. All rights reserved. Do not duplicate or
redist
ribute in any form.

Which of the following are true regarding 100BaseT? Choose
two.


A.

100BaseT uses the existing IEEE 802.3 CSMA/CD
specification.

B.

100BaseT supports dual speeds of 10 and 100 Mbps.

C.

100BaseT uses on
ly fiber as its media.

D.

100BaseT supports only a speed of 100 Mbps.


Answer: A and B


100BaseT supports three media types at the OSI physical layer:
100BaseTX, 100BaseFX, and 100BaseT4. 100BaseT uses the
existing IEEE 802.3 CSMA/CD specification and support
s dual
speeds of 10 and 100 Mbps. 100BaseT supports two signaling
types: 100BaseX and 4T+.



Which of the following are true regarding 100VG
-
AnyLAN? Choose
two.


A.

It was developed by Hewlett
-
Packard (HP).

B.

It was developed by Microsoft.

C.

It is an alternative

to CSMA/CD for newer time
-
sensitive
applications, such as multimedia.

D.

Link distances from node to hub are 200 meters.


Answer: A and C


100VG
-
AnyLAN was developed by Hewlett
-
Packard (HP) as an
alternative to CSMA/CD for newer time
-
sensitive applications,
such as multimedia. It supports UTP, STP, or Fiber Optic. Link
distances from node to hub are 100 meters (Category 3 UTP) or
150 meters (Category 5 UTP). Since it used a polling media
access method and was incompatible with Ethernet signaling, it
was not t
ypically used and is pretty much dead.



Which of the following are true regarding Gigabit Ethernet?
Choose two.


A.

Gigabit Ethernet can not be used with switches.

B.

Gigabit Ethernet can only operate at half
-
duplex.

C.

Gigabit Ethernet offers 1000 Mbps of raw
-
dat
a bandwidth
while maintaining compatibility with Ethernet and Fast
Ethernet network devices.

D.

It provides for full
-
duplex operating modes for switch
-
to
-
switch and switch
-
to
-
end
-
station connections.


Answer: C and D


Gigabit Ethernet offers 1000 Mbps of raw
-
data bandwidth while
maintaining compatibility with Ethernet and Fast Ethernet
network devices. It provides for full
-
duplex operating modes
for switch
-
to
-
switch and switch
-
to
-
end
-
station connections. It
is to initially operate over fiber
-
optic cabling but
it will
be implemented over Category 5 UTP and coax.

CCNA 640
-
607 Practice Exam Four

15

Copyright © 2000
-

2002 CCxx Productions. All rights reserved. Do not duplicate or
redist
ribute in any form.

FDDI (Fiber Distributed Data Interface) uses which
architecture?


A.

Bus

B.

Loop

C.

Dual
-
ring

D.

Star


Answer: C


FDDI (Fiber Distributed Data Interface) uses a dual
-
ring
architecture with traffic on each ring flowi
ng in opposite
directions. One ring is called a primary ring and the other is
called a secondary ring. Normally, the primary ring is used
for data transmission and the secondary ring is idle.




Which Cisco IOS feature will help reduce SAP advertisements?


A. CiscoFlow network management protocol.

B. access lists

C. router interface blocking

D. SAP R/3 upgrade


Answer: B


Access lists can be used to control traffic on an internetwork
and improve overall network performance. In the case of
Service Advert
ising Protocol (SAP) advertisements on a Novell
network, access lists can be used to reduce the number of
services advertised and thereby increase network performance
by reducing router CPU usage and reducing network traffic.
Access lists are also a tool t
o provide a level of security on
an internetwork.




What is the access list number range for type IPX extended?


A. 600
-
699

B. 700
-
799

C. 800
-
899

D. 900
-
999


Answer: D


Access lists can be used to control traffic on an internetwork
and improve overall

network performance. The access list
number range for IPX extended are 900
-
999. Access lists are
also a tool to provide a level of security on an internetwork.







CCNA 640
-
607 Practice Exam Four

16

Copyright © 2000
-

2002 CCxx Productions. All rights reserved. Do not duplicate or
redist
ribute in any form.

You want to enable both arpa and snap encapsulation on one

router interface. How do you
do this?


A. The interface can handle multiple encapsulation types


with no extra configuration

B. Assign two network numbers, one for each encapsulation


type

C. Enable Novell
-
ether to run multiple encapsulation types

D. Both arpa and snap are enabl
ed by default so you don't


have to configure anything


Answer: B


To enable both arpa and snap encapsulation on one
router interface,
assign two network numbers, one for each encapsulation type. To assign
multiple network numbers, you usually use subi
nterfaces.




What does the "IPX maximum
-
paths 2" command accomplish?


A. It enables load sharing on 2 paths if the paths are equal


metric paths.

B. It sets up routing to go to network 2.

C. It is the default for Cisco IPX load sharing.

D. It enables

load sharing on 2 paths if the paths are


unequal metric paths.


Answer: A


It enables load sharing on 2 paths if the paths

are equal metric paths. The default is 1 path and the

maximum is 512 paths.




When does Pinhole Congestion occur?


A.

The router

port can’t handle more than 56K of data

B.

The ISDN line is not configured to come up when the primary
line fails

C.

When multiple paths out of the router do not have the same
bandwidth or cost

D.

When too much data is trying to enter a router port


Answer: C


Pin
hole Congestion occurs when multiple paths out of the router do not
have the same bandwidth or cost. Let’s say you have a T
-
1 and 56K line
connecting an access layer router and a distribution router. Once the
56K link is operating at capacity, some routing

protocols aren’t
sophisticated enough to realize that most of the T
-
1 bandwidth is
unused because they believe the load is equally balanced.





CCNA 640
-
607 Practice Exam Four

17

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-

2002 CCxx Productions. All rights reserved. Do not duplicate or
redist
ribute in any form.

Select the routing protocol that uses balanced hybrid

routing?


A. IS
-
IS

B. Enhanced IGRP

C. RIP

D. OSPF

E
. IGRP


Answer: B


Balanced hybrid routing uses distance vectors with more
accurate methods to calculate distance and it uses

topology changes to trigger routing database updates. Cisco's
Enhanced Interior Gateway Routing Protocol (Enhanced

IGRP) is a bal
anced hybrid protocol.







How do you configure a router to act as a DCE device?


A. Set the clock rate

B. Set the ring speed

C. Type "router DCE"

D. The router cannot be a DCE device


Answer: A


When the clock rate is set then the router becomes a
DEC
device.









The clock rate on a DEC device is set in bits per second, the
bandwidth is set in _________.


A. kbps

B. kbits

C. Mbits

D. Mbytes


Answer: A


The bandwidth in internetworking terminology is usually described in
terms of "kbps" or “
kilobytes per second”.





CCNA 640
-
607 Practice Exam Four

18

Copyright © 2000
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2002 CCxx Productions. All rights reserved. Do not duplicate or
redist
ribute in any form.

Cisco Discovery Protocol (CDP) can discover any directly

connected routers. On which OSI model layer does it work?


A. Datalink

B. Physical

C. Network

D. Session

E. Presentation


Answer: A


The Cisco Discovery Protocol (C
DP) operates at the datalink
layer of the OSI reference model. CDP is used by Cisco
internetworking devices to advertise its location and
existence in the network.






The physical media that support ______ can connect CDP devices.


A. SNAP

B. TCP/IP

C.

Novell IPX

D. AppleTalk


Answer: A


SNAP (Subnetwork Access Protocol) works on the Physical layer, the
other protocols work on higher layers.






How do you find out information about other CDP devices that

are connected to you?


A. Type "show cdp neig
hbors" at the Router# prompt

B. Type "show cdp devices" at the Router# prompt

C. Type "show cdp" at the Router# prompt

D. Type "show cdp neighbors" at the Router(config)# prompt


Answer: A


The Cisco IOS privileged EXEC command "show cdp neighbors
"
will display information about neighboring routers connected
on your network.









CCNA 640
-
607 Practice Exam Four

19

Copyright © 2000
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2002 CCxx Productions. All rights reserved. Do not duplicate or
redist
ribute in any form.

Which are TCP/IP protocol stack application layer protocols

for file transfer? Choose three.


A. TFTP

B. FTP

C. NFS

D. NTFS

E. HPFS


Answer: A, B, and C


The TC
P/IP application layer protocols that

are used for file transfer are:


TFTP
-

Trivial File Transfer Protocol

FTP
-

File Transfer Protocol

NFS
-

Network File System




Which OSI model layer is responsible for flow control with
sliding windows and reliabilit
y with sequence numbers and
acknowledgments?


A. Transport

B. Application

C. Internet

D. Network Interface


Answer: A


The transport layer of the OSI model provides services that allow end
systems to segment and then reassemble multiple data applicat
ions
within the same data stream. Flow control is used to prevent buffer
overflow at either end of the transmission.




Which three statements about port numbers are correct?


A. Port numbers below 255 are for public applications.

B. Port numbers from 25
6
-

1023 are assigned to companies


for saleable applications.

C. Port numbers above 1023 are dynamically assigned by host


applications.

D. Port numbers above 1023 are for public applications.

E. Port numbers below 255 are dynamically assigned by
host


applications.


Answer: A, B, and C



Port numbers below 255 are for public applications. Port
numbers from 256
-

1023 are assigned to companies for saleable
applications. Port numbers above 1023 are dynamically
assigned by host applications.



CCNA 640
-
607 Practice Exam Four

20

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2002 CCxx Productions. All rights reserved. Do not duplicate or
redist
ribute in any form.

W
hich is the INCORRECT pairing of a port number with an

application?


A. Telnet, 21

B. SMTP, 25

C. DNS, 53

D. TFTP, 69

E. SNMP, 161


Answer: A


Telnet is incorrectly paired with port 21, it should be port
23. Other ports are: FTP, 21; SMTP, 25; DNS,

53; TFTP, 69;
SNMP, 161.







What is the flow control mechanism called when the receiving
TCP reports to the sending TCP the number of octets that it is
willing to receive?


A. Window size

B. Handshake

C. Sequence number

D. Sequence window


Answer: A



The "window size" is the number of data segments that a sender
can send without receiving an acknowledgement.







Which processes does TCP, but not UDP, use? Choose two.


A. Windowing

B. Acknowledgements

C. Source Port

D. Destination Port


Answer:
A and B


UDP (User Datagram Protocol) does not use windowing or
acknowledgements. UDP is a connectionless and unreliable
protocol since there is no delivery checking mechanism in the
UDP data format.






CCNA 640
-
607 Practice Exam Four

21

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2002 CCxx Productions. All rights reserved. Do not duplicate or
redist
ribute in any form.

Which protocol carries messages such as Destination

Unreachable, Time Exceeded, Parameter Problem, Source

Quench, Redirect, Echo, Echo Reply, Timestamp, Information

Request, Information Reply, Address Request, and Address

Reply?


A. ICMP

B. UDP

C. TCP

D. TFTP

E. FTP


Answer: A


ICMP (Internet Control M
essage Protocol) is a network layer
internet protocol. ICMP reports IP packet information such as
Destination Unreachable, Time Exceeded, Parameter Problem,
Source Quench, Redirect, Echo, Echo Reply, Timestamp,
Information Request, Information Reply, Addre
ss Request, and
Address Reply.




When the router runs out of buffer space, this is called

________.


A. Source Quench

B. Redirect

C. Information Request

D. Low Memory


Answer: A


Source Quench is the process where the destination router, or
end inter
networking device will "quench" the date from the
"source", or the source router. This usually happens when the
destination router runs out of buffer space to process
packets.




There are two processes to pair MAC address with IP

addresses. Which process

finds an IP address from a MAC

address?


A. RARP

B. ARP

C. RIP

D. IGRP


Answer: A


ARP (Address Resolution Protocol) maps an IP address to the MAC
address, RARP (Reverse Address Resolution Protocol) maps the MAC
address to the IP address. ARP and RA
RP work at the internet layer of
the Internet Model or the network layer of the OSI model.


CCNA 640
-
607 Practice Exam Four

22

Copyright © 2000
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2002 CCxx Productions. All rights reserved. Do not duplicate or
redist
ribute in any form.

When configuring the subnet mask for an IP address, which

formats can be used?


A. dotted
-
decimal

B. hexadecimal

C. Bit
-
count

D. Octal

E. Binary


Answer: A, B,

and C


You set the format of the subnet mask using term IP netmask
-
format { bitcount | decimal | hexadecimal}. To you bitcount,
the address would be displayed as 131.108.11.55/24. To use
decimal, it would be displayed as 131.108.11.55 255.255.255.0.
T
o use hexadecimal, it would display as 131.108.11.55
0XFFFFFF00.




Which command, that is used to test address configuration,

uses Time
-
To
-
Live (TTL) values to generate messages from

each router.


A. trace

B. ping

C. telnet

D. boot


Answer: A


The Ci
sco IOS EXEC command "trace [protocol][destination]" is used to
discover routes that packets will travel to their destination hosts.
Trace uses TTL (Time to Live) values to report destination route
information.




A default route is analogous to a _______
__.


A. default gateway

B. static route

C. dynamic route

D. one
-
way route



Answer: A


A default route is analogous to a default gateway. It is used
to reduce the length of routing tables and to provide complete
routing capabilities when a router mig
ht not know the routes
to all other networks.






CCNA 640
-
607 Practice Exam Four

23

Copyright © 2000
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2002 CCxx Productions. All rights reserved. Do not duplicate or
redist
ribute in any form.

The command "show IP protocol" displays which information?

Choose two.


A. routing timers

B. network information

C. contents of the IP routing table

D. information about all known network and subnetworks



Answer: A and B


"show IP protocol" displays routing timers and network information.
"show IP route" displays the routing table with information about all
known networks and subnetworks.




What does Frame Relay use to control congestion? Choose three
.


A.

DE

B.

SDLC

C.

BECN

D.

FECN


Answer: A, C, and D


Frame Relay uses DE (Discard Eligibility), BECN (Backward
-
Explicit
Congestion Notification), and FECN (Forward
-
Explicit Congestion
Notification). When congestion is detected on the network, the DE bit
is turned on

in a Frame Relay packet header. The Frame Relay switch
will first discard the packets with the DE bit set. When congestion is
detected by the switch, the BECN bit is set in the packet and sent to
the source router, telling it to slow down the rate that it

is
transmitting packets. When congestion is detected on the network, the
switch sets the FECN bit in the packet to tell the destination that the
path just traversed is congested.




Which of the following three sets of IP addresses and subnet
masks are pr
ivate IP addresses?


A. 10.0.0.0


255.0.0.0

B. 172.16.0.0

255.255.0.0

C. 172.16.0.0

255.240.0.0

D. 198.168.0.0

255.255.0.0


Answer: A, C, and D


The IP addresses and subnet masks that are for use on private
networks are 10.0.0.0


255.0.0.0, 172.16.0.0


2
55.240.0.0,
and 198.168.0.0


255.255.0.0. Usually, networks that don’t
connect to the global Internet use these addresses. If these
addresses are used in a network that also uses a globally
unique IP address or registered address, the private addresses
mu
st be filtered with access lists to avoid advertising them
to the Internet.


CCNA 640
-
607 Practice Exam Four

24

Copyright © 2000
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2002 CCxx Productions. All rights reserved. Do not duplicate or
redist
ribute in any form.

Which type of protocol converges the fastest?


A.

Distance
-
vector

B.

Link
-
state


Answer: B


Link
-
state protocols converge faster than distance
-
vector protocols.
Convergence is the time
it takes for routers to arrive at a consistent
understanding of the topology after a change takes place. Convergence
depends on timers, network diameter and complexity, features of the
routing protocol, and frequency of routing protocol updates. The two
co
mponents of convergence are the time it takes to detect a link
failure and the time to determine a new route.




Which of the following provides the best fault tolerance?


A.

Partial Mesh Topology

B.

Full Mesh Topology


Answer: B


The Full Mesh Topology provides

the best fault tolerance because every
node has a direct link to every other node. However, it is not
efficient and does not scale well. This will cause problems with
manageability, performance, and cost. It also does not follow the
hierarchical topology
. The best way to preserve hierarchy while
providing redundancy and fault tolerance is to use a Partial Mesh
Topology. This design will still provides redundant links to the layer
above it but is less expensive and is easier to manage. With a Partial
Mesh
Topology, some network nodes form a full mesh but others are
attached to only one or two nodes in the network.




When would be the best time to use static routing?


A.

On networks that have low bandwidth and routes that rarely
change

B.

On large networks with f
requently changing routes and high
bandwidth

C.

Never use static routing because it is difficult to manage

D.

Only on networks that have routes that change frequently
and have low bandwidth


Answer: A


You would want to use static routing on networks that have l
ow
bandwidth and routes that rarely change. With static routing,
you must type in each individual route, so the fewer changes
that have to be made, the better. Use dynamic routing on
larger networks with frequently changing routes.




CCNA 640
-
607 Practice Exam Four

25

Copyright © 2000
-

2002 CCxx Productions. All rights reserved. Do not duplicate or
redist
ribute in any form.

“Ships
-
in
-
the
-
night”

routing is best described as:


A.

Routers using different routing protocols have trouble
seeing each other

B.

Routers are able to support different routing protocols and
maintain routing tables for all routed protocols
simultaneously.

C.

Routers only support proto
cols specifically developed for
that type of router

D.

All traffic stops during certain periods so that the
routing protocols can rest


Answer: B


“Ships
-
in
-
the
-
night” routing is best described as routers
being able to support different routing protocols and
maintain
routing tables for all routed protocols simultaneously.
Routers pay no attention to each other’s protocols so that
many networks can be created over the same network media.




How many SPID’s (Service Profile Identifiers) should you have
for each
ISDN B channel?


A.

1

B.

2

C.

3

D.

4


Answer: A


You’ll need to obtain SPID’s when configuring ISDN BRI. SPID’s
are actually telephone numbers assigned to each channel. You
should have one SPID per B channel and two for BRI.




What are the two fundamental functions s
erved by routing
protocols?


A.

Path determination

B.

Path switching

C.

Path metric

D.

Path module


Answer: A and B


The two fundamental functions served by routing protocols are
path determination and path switching. Path determination is
when the router knows a rout
e to the desired destination
address. Path switching is when the router moves the packet
from the inbound interface to the outbound interface.





CCNA 640
-
607 Practice Exam Four

26

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2002 CCxx Productions. All rights reserved. Do not duplicate or
redist
ribute in any form.

Select the correctly matching ISDN reference points and

their respective interfaces.


A. R = Interface betwee
n TE2 and TA

B. S = Interface between TE1 and NT2

C. T = Interface between NT1 and NT2

D. U = Interface between NT1 and ISDN network

E. All of the above are correct


Answer: E


All the reference points are correctly matched to their
respective interfa
ces.


The ISDN reference point R is the interface between TE2 and

TA.

The ISDN reference point S is the interface between TE1 and

NT2.

The ISDN reference point T is the interface between NT1 and

NT2.

The ISDN reference point U is the interface between N
T1 and

an ISDN network.




DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) can assign IP
addresses statically or dynamically.


A.

True

B.

False


Answer: A


DHCP (Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol) can assign an IP address
statically to a workstation so that it alwa
ys get the same IP address.
DHCP can also assign IP addresses dynamically to workstations so that
the IP addresses can be re
-
used.





A “broadcast domain” is usually controlled by:


A.

switches

B.

routers

C.

hubs

D.

NIC


Answer: B


A “broadcast domain” is usually con
trolled by routers. A
“broadcast domain” is a group of devices that receive
broadcast frames coming from any device within the group.





CCNA 640
-
607 Practice Exam Four

27

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2002 CCxx Productions. All rights reserved. Do not duplicate or
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ribute in any form.


When using access lists, what does a Cisco router check first?


A. To see if the packet is routable or bridgeable

B.

The destination address

C. The source address

D. The packet contents


Answer: A


The first thing checked is to see if the packet is routable or
bridgeable. If it is not, the packet will be dropped.








What are the two types of access lists that ca
n be configured on a
Cisco router?


A. Standard

B. Extended

C. Filtering

D. Packet


Answer: A and B


The access lists are standard and extended. Standard access
lists for IP check the source address of packets that could be
routed. Extended access li
sts can check the source and
destination packet plus check for specific protocols, port
numbers, etc.







What is a LSA?


A. Link State Attribute

B. Link State Advertisement

C. Link State Attributes

D. Link State Area


Answer: B


A Link State Advert
isement (LSA) is a packet sent to a
neighboring router containing cost metric and routing
information.






CCNA 640
-
607 Practice Exam Four

28

Copyright © 2000
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2002 CCxx Productions. All rights reserved. Do not duplicate or
redist
ribute in any form.

Which of the following best describe “switching” through a
router?


A.

When routing protocols are automatically switched depending
on which type of pac
ket enters the interface

B.

Methods used by routers to move a packet from an incoming
interface to the correct outgoing interface

C.

A mechanical switch that turns a routers interfaces on or
off

D.

Switching doesn’t occur in routers, only in switches


Answer: B


Me
thods used by routers to move a packet from an incoming
interface to the correct outgoing interface best describe
“switching” through a router. There are many types of
switching and a router’s interfaces and physical design allow
for a variety of switching

processes.




What addresses are commonly used for routers on an IP network?
Choose two.


A.

x.x.x.1

B.

x.x.x.100

C.

x.x.x.255

D.

x.x.x.254


Answer: A and D


x.x.x.1 and x.x.x.254 are commonly used for routers on an IP network.
For networks with multiple routers, a r
ange of addresses can be
reserved.




The most common elements used to establish a traffic
conversation are:


A.

MAC addresses

B.

Port numbers

C.

Type of service

D.

DLCI number assigned to an interface

E.

Source and destination IP addresses

F.

All of the above

G.

Only A, B, an
d E


Answer: F


The most common elements used to establish a traffic conversation are
MAC addresses, Port numbers, Type of service, source and destination IP
addresses, and the DLCI number assigned to an interface.





CCNA 640
-
607 Practice Exam Four

29

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2002 CCxx Productions. All rights reserved. Do not duplicate or
redist
ribute in any form.

One device is chosen to be the active

monitor in a Token Ring
network. Which of the following are performed by the active
monitor? Choose three.


A.

Removes continuously circulating frames from the ring

B.

Acts as a centralized source of timing information for
other ring stations

C.

Generates new toke
ns

D.

Detects errors


Answer: A, B, and C


A Token Ring active monitor removes continuously circulating
tokens from the ring which can lock up the network. It acts as
a centralized source of timing information for other ring
stations and performs ring mainten
ance functions. It will
generate a new token after removing continuously circulating
tokens from the ring.