(e)the Layer 2 source and destination address

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27 Οκτ 2013 (πριν από 4 χρόνια και 17 μέρες)

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Q1.
What header address information does a router change in the information it receives from an
attached Ethernet interface before information is transmitted out another interface?


(a)

only the Layer 2 source address

(b)

only the Layer 2 destination address

(c)

o
nly the Layer 3 source address

(d)

only the Layer 3 destination address

(e)

the Layer 2 source and destination address

(f)

the Layer 3 source and destination address


Q2.
Which two statements describe functions or characteristics of CDP? (Choose two.)


(a)

It star
ts up automatically and allows the device to detect directly connected
neighbor devices that use CDP.

(b)

It operates at the network layer and allows two systems to learn about each other.

(c)

It creates a topology map of the entire network.

(d)

It allows system
s to learn about each other even if different network layer protocols
are configured.

(e)

It forwards advertisements about routes for faster convergence.


Q3.
A router learns two paths with equal metrics to a destination network via the RIP routing
protoco
l. How will the router handle packets to the destination network?


(a)

The router will install the first route it learned into the routing table.

(b)

The router will install both routes in the routing table and load balance between the
two.

(c)

The router will put

the first route in the routing table, and denote the second route as a
backup route.

(d)

The router will pick the path with the higher bandwidth and will place it in the routing
table.


Q4.
What metric does the RIP routing protocol consider to be infinity
?


(a)

0

(b)

15

(c)

16

(d)

224

(e)

255


Q5.
Which two conditions are most likely to cause a routing loop? (Choose two.)


(a)

random jitter

(b)

implementation of classful addressing

(c)

inconsistent routing tables

(d)

incorrectly configured static routes

(e)

a network converging

too quickly

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Q6.
Which two statements are true regarding the characteristics of RIPv1? (Choose two).


(a)

It is a distance vector routing protocol.

(b)

It advertises the address and subnet mask for routes in routing updates.

(c)

The data portion of a RIP messag
e is encapsulated into a TCP segment.

(d)

The data portion of a RIP message is encapsulated into a UDP segment.

(e)

It broadcasts updates every 15 seconds.

(f)

It allows a maximum of 15 routers in the routing domain.


Q7.
A static route has been configured on
a router. However, the destination network no longer
exists. What should an administrator do to remove the static route from the routing table?


(a)

Change the routing metric for that route.

(b)

Nothing. The static route will go away on its own.

(c)

Change the adm
inistrative distance for that route.

(d)

Remove the route using the no ip route command.


Q8.



Refer to the exhibit. Host A is unable to access the Intern
et, and troubleshooting has revealed
that this is due to an addressing problem. What is incorrectly configured in this network?


(a)

the IP address of the Fa0/0 interface of R1

(b)

the subnet mask of the S0/0/0 interface of R1

(c)

the IP address of the S0/0/0 inte
rface of R1

(d)

the subnet mask of the S0/0/0 interface of R2


Q9.
Which network design feature requires the deployment of a classless routing protocol?


(a)

private IP addressing

(b)

advertising default routes

(c)

variable length subnet masks

(d)

summarization on m
ajor network boundaries


Q10.
A network administrator needs to assign the very last usable IP address in the
172.24.64.0/18 network range to the router interface that serves this LAN. Which IP address
should the administrator configure on the interface?


(a)

172.16.128.154/18

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(b)

172.16.255.254/18

(c)

172.24.64.254/18

(d)

172.24.127.254/18


Q11.
What does RIP use to reduce convergence time in a larger network?


(a)

It uses multicast instead of broadcast to send routing updates.

(b)

It reduces the update timer to 15 sec
onds if there are more than 10 routes.

(c)

It uses triggered updates to announce network changes if they happen in between
the periodic updates.

(d)

It uses random pings to detect if a pathway is down and therefore is preemptive on
finding networks that are do
wn.


Q12.
Which two statements are correct about the split horizon with poison reverse method of
routing loop prevention? (Choose two.)


(a)

It is enabled by default on all Cisco IOS implementations.

(b)

It assigns a value that represents an infinite metric to

the poisoned route.

(c)

It sends back the poisoned route update to the same interface from where it was
received.

(d)

It instructs routers to hold all changes that might affect routes, for a specified period of
time.

(e)

It limits the number of hops a packet ca
n traverse through the network before it is
discarded.




Q13.
What range of networks will be advertised in the OSPF updates by the command
Router1(config
-
router)#
network 192.168.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 100
?


(a)

192.168.0.0/24 through 192.168.0.15/24

(b)

192.168
.0.0/24 through 192.168.15.0/24

(c)

192.168.15.0/24 through 192.168.31.0/24

(d)

192.168.15.0/24 through 192.168.255.0/24

(e)

192.168.16.0/24 through 192.168.255.0/24


Q14.


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Refer to the exhibit. When OSPF is operational in the exhibited network, what neighbor
relationship is developed between Router1 and Router2?


(a)

A FULL adjacency is formed.

(b)

A 2WAY adjacency is formed.

(c)

Router2 will become the DR and Router1 will
become the BDR.

(d)

Both routers will become DROTHERS.


Q15.
Which two statements describe the use of OSPF DR/BDR elections? (Choose two.)


(a)

Elections are always optional.

(b)

Elections are required in all WAN networks.

(c)

Elections are required in point
-
to
-
po
int networks.

(d)

Elections are required in broadcast multiaccess networks.

(e)

Elections are sometimes required in NBMA networks.


Q16.
What are two functions of a router? (Choose two.)


(a)

It connects multiple IP networks.

(b)

It controls the flow of data via t
he use of Layer 2 addresses.

(c)

It determines the best path to send packets.

(d)

It manages the VLAN database.

(e)

It increases the size of the broadcast domain.


Q17.
When a router boots, what is the default order to locate the Cisco IOS if there is no
boot
system

command?


(a)

ROM, TFTP server, flash

(b)

flash, TFTP server, ROM

(c)

flash, NVRAM, TFTP server

(d)

NVRAM, TFTP server, flash





Q18.
Which router component is used to store the routing table


(a)

Flash

(b)

NVRAM

(c)

ROM

(d)

SDRAM


Q19.

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Refer to the exhibit. How many routes are child routes?


(a)

1

(b)

3

(c)

4

(d)

6


Q20.
Which two statements are true regarding link
-
state routing protocols? (Choose two.)


(a)

They are aware
of the complete network topology.

(b)

They offer rapid convergence times in large networks.

(c)

They do not include subnet masks in their routing updates.

(d)

They rely on decreasing hop counts to determine the best path.

(e)

They do not work well in networks that

require special hierarchical designs.

(f)

They pass their entire routing tables to their directly connected neighbors only.


Q21.
What two routing protocols use a hierarchal network topology? (Choose two.)


(a)

IS
-
IS

(b)

EIGRP

(c)

OSPF

(d)

RIPv1

(e)

RIPv2












Q22.

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Refer to the exhibit. All router interfaces are configured with an IP address and are operational.
If no routing protocols or static routes are configu
red, what information will be included in the
show ip route

command output for router A?


(a)

All of the 192.168.x.0 networks will be in the routing table.

(b)

Routes to networks 192.168.1.0/24, 192.168.2.0/24, and 192.168.3.0/24 will be in the
routing table.

(c)

The routing table will be empty because routes and dynamic routes have not been
configured.

(d)

A default route is automatically installed in the routing table to allow connectivity
between the networks.


Q23.




Which of the following could describe the devices labeled "
?
" in the graphic? (Choose three.)


(a)

DCE

(b)

CSU/DSU

(c)

LAN switch

(d)

modem

(e)

hub


Q24.
A static route has been configured on a router. However, the

destination network no longer
exists. What should an administrator do to remove the static route from the routing table?


(a)

Change the routing metric for that route.

(b)

Nothing. The static route will go away on its own.

(c)

Change the administrative distance f
or that route.

(d)

Remove the route using the no ip route command.

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Q25.



Refer to exhibit. Given the topology shown in the exhibit, what three commands are
needed to
configure EIGRP on the Paris router? (Choose three.)


(a)

Paris(config)# router eigrp 100

(b)

Paris(config)#
router eigrp

(c)

Paris(config
-
router)#
network 192.168.6.0

(d)

Paris(config
-
router)# network 192.168.7.0

(e)

Paris(config
-
router)# network 192.168.8.
0

(f)

Paris(config
-
router)#
network 192.168.9.0


Q26.
A router has EIGRP configured as the only routing protocol. In what way might EIGRP
respond if there is no feasible successor route to a destination network and the successor route
fails?


(a)

It broadcasts

hello packets to all routers in the network to re
-
establish neighbor
adjacencies.

(b)

It sends queries to adjacent neighbors until a new successor route is found.

(c)

It immediately sends its entire routing table to its neighbors.

(d)

It will set the metric for

the failed route to infinity.


Q27.
Which three statements describe the operation of routing with EIGRP? (Choose three.)


(a)

As new neighbors are discovered, entries are placed in a neighbor table.

(b)

If the feasible successor has a higher advertised cost t
han the current successor route, then it
becomes the primary route.

(c)

If hello packets are not received within the hold time, DUAL must recalculate the
topology.

(d)

The reported distance is the distance to a destination as advertised by a neighbor.

(e)

EIGRP
maintains full knowledge of the network topology in the topology table and
exchanges full routing information with neighboring routers in every update.

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(f)

EIGRP builds one routing table that contains routes for all configured routed protocols.


Q28.



Refer to the exhibit. What happens to a packet that has 172.16.0.0/16 as the best match in the
routing table that is shown?


(a)

The packet is discarded.

(b)

The packet i
s flooded out all interfaces.

(c)

The packet is forwarded via Serial0/0/0.

(d)

The packet is forwarded via FastEthernet0/0.


Q29.
A network is configured with the IP, IPX, and AppleTalk protocols. Which routing
protocol is recommended for this network?


(a)

RIPv
1

(b)

RIPv2

(c)

EIGRP

(d)

OSPF


Q30.
What command would the network administrator apply to a router that is running OSPF to
advertise the entire range of addresses included in 172.16.0.0/19 in area 0?


(a)

R1(config
-
router)#
network 172.16.0.0 0.0.0.255 area 0


(b)

R
1(config
-
router)#
network 172.16.0.0 0.0.3.255 area 0


(c)

R1(config
-
router)#
network 172.16.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 0


(d)

R1(config
-
router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.31.255 area 0


Q31.
What should be considered when troubleshooting a problem with the establishmen
t of
neighbor relationships between OSPF routers? (Choose two.)


(a)

OSPF interval timers mismatch

(b)

administrative distance mismatch

(c)

interface network type mismatch

(d)

no loopback interface configured

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(e)

gateway of last resort not redistributed


Q32.
Which
two components are used to determine the router ID in the configuration of the
OSPF routing process? (Choose two.)


(a)

the IP address of the first FastEthernet interface

(b)

the highest IP address of any logical interface

(c)

the highest IP address of any physica
l interface

(d)

the default gateway IP address

(e)

the priority value of 1 on any physical interface

Q33.
What is the function of the OSPF LSR packet?


(a)

It is used to confirm the receipt of LSUs.

(b)

It is used to establish and maintain adjacency with other OSP
F routers.

(c)

It is used by the receiving routers to request more information about any entry in
the DBD.

(d)

It is used to check the database synchronization between routers.


Q34.



Refer to the exhibit. Network 192.168.0.0/28 goes down. What type of packet does Router2
immediately send to Router1 and Router3


(a)

a query for network 192.168.0.0/28

(b)

an acknowledgment packet to 224.0.0.9

(c)

an update packet that is s
ent to 255.255.255.255

(d)

a packet that contains the new routing table for R2

(e)

unicast update packets to 192.168.1.1 and 192.168.2.1


Q35.
What administrative distance would a router assign to a default route in EIGRP that is
learned from a source extern
al to the autonomous system?


(a)

1

(b)

5

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(c)

70

(d)

90

(e)

170

(f)

190


Q36. The
show ip eigrp topology

command output on a router displays a successor route and a
feasible successor route to network 192.168.1.0/24. In order to reduce processor utilization, what
does

EIGRP do when the primary route to this network fails?


(a)

The router sends query packets to all EIGRP neighbors for a better route to network
192.168.1.0/24.

(b)

The DUAL FSM immediately recomputes the algorithm to calculate the next backup
route.

(c)

Packets
that are destined for network 192.168.1.0/24 are sent out the default gateway
instead.

(d)

The backup route to network 192.168.1.0/24 is installed in the routing table.


Q37.



Refer to the exhibit. If all routers and interfaces are configured to use a link
-
state routing
protocol, from which routers will router D receive hello packets?


(a)

A and E

(b)

B and C

(c)

A, B, C, and E

(d)

C only





Q38.


RIPv2 is the configu
red routing protocol on the routers in a network. The command
Router(config
-
router)#
no version 2

is entered on the routers. What effect does entering this
command have on routing updates?


(a)

Subnet masks will be added to the routing updates.

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(b)

Routing updat
es will be sent out using multicast address 224.0.0.9.

(c)

Version 1 and 2 updates will be received and the version 2 updates will not be sent.

(d)

The RIP routing process will be removed from the router and routing updates will not be
forwarded.


Q39.
What
is a supernet?


(a)

the network for a default route

(b)

a network that contains both private and public addresses

(c)

a set of discontiguous networks that are controlled by an ISP

(d)

a summarization of serveral IP classful networks into one IP address range


Q40.




Refer to the exhibit. The network that is shown is running RIPv1. The 192.168.10.0/24 network
was recently added and will only contain end users. What comman
d or set of commands should
be entered on Router1 to prevent RIPv1 updates from being sent to the end user devices on the
new network while still allowing this new network to be advertised to other routers?


(a)

Router1(config
-
router)#
no router rip


Router1(c
onfig
-
router)#
network 192.168.10.0


(b)

Router1(config
-
router)#
no network 192.168.10.0


(c)

Router1(config
-
router)# passive
-
interface fastethernet 0/0

(d)

Router1(config
-
router)#
passive
-
interface serial 0/0/0